Political Theory BA Politics MCQ Questions

Students should go through the Political Theory BA Politics MCQ Questions with Answers provided below. Political Theory BA Politics are important topics for various commerce and competitive examinations. It’s important to practice as many MCQ Questions with Answers for Political Theory BA Politics as it will help them to practice and gain more expertise. Our team of expert faculty has designed questions with multiple-choice based on the latest examination pattern issued by various institutes. This will help them to gain understanding, have stronger concepts and get a better score in exams.

MCQ with Answers for Political Theory BA Politics

Question. Who was the chairman of the Constitution Drafting Committee
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Dr B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(d) Sardar Vallabhai Patel

Question. How many methods are there to amend the Constitution of India
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) 3
(d) 2

Question. Quo warranto is
(a) Writ
(b) statute
(c) Treaty
(d) Act

Question. The watchword of a Parliamentary government is
(a) Stability
(b) checks and balances
(c) Political homogeneity
(d) responsibility

Question. Who presides over the joint session of the Parliament?
(a) Speaker
(b) Deputy Chairman
(c) President
(d) Vice President

Question. The position of the Vice President of India resembles to the position of Vice President of
(a) France
(b) USA
(c) Canada
(d) Russia

Question. The Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India were adopted from
(a) Canadian Constitution
(b) Russian Constitution
(c) American Constitution
(d) French Constitution

Question. Which writ give the meaning ‘we command’ in letters
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Prohibition
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Mandamus

Question. Which of the following is not included in the Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India?
(a) Right to adequate means of livelihood
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right against Exploitation
(d) Right to Equality

Question. The Directive Principles of State Policy have been adopted from
(a) US Constitution
(b) Irish Constitution
(c) French Constitution
(d) Canadian Constitution

Question. The age to exercise franchise was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by
(a) 42nd amendment
(b) 44th amendment
(c) 61st amendment
(d) 72nd amendment

Question. The President of India can dissolve the House of People on the recommendation of the
(a) Vice President
(b) Chief Justice
(c) Cabinet
(d) Council of Ministers

Question. Motion suggesting that expenditure earmarked for particular ministry should be reduced is known as
(a) Adjournment motion
(b) Cut motion
(c) Privilege motion
(d) Call of attention motion

Question. Keshavananda Bharati case was associated with
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) State right
(d) Armed rebellion

Question. The word ‘socialist’ was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which amendment
(a) 44th
(b) 27th
(c) 21st
(d) 42nd

Question. The Constitution of India is
(a) Rigid
(b) flexible
(c) Combination of rigidity and flexibility
(d) Neither rigid nor flexible

Question. Right to Property is included in Article
(a) 32
(b) 19
(c) 31
(d) 14

Question. The Union List consists of
(a) 97 subjects
(b) 61 subjects
(c) 47 subjects
(d) 73 subjects

Question. An interpretation of the Constitution of India is based on the spirit of
(a) Fundamental Duties
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble
(d) Federal System

Question. The Constituent Assembly was set according to the proposals of
(a) The Cripps Mission
(b) the Cabinet Mission
(c) Mountbatten Plan
(d) Rajagopalachari Plan

Question. Right to Property was removed from Fundamental Rights by which amendment
(a) 29th
(b) 25th
(c) 44th
(d) 42nd

Question. Part IV A of the Indian Constitution deal with
(a) Fundamental Duties
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles of state Policy
(d) Citizenship

Question. Communalism is opposed to
(a) Secular credential
(b) ethnic conflict
(c) friendship between class
(d) All of the above

Question. Globalisation gives primacy to unbriddled
(a) Welfare means
(b) Trade
(c) Socialism
(d) Consumerism

Question. The procedure for amending the Constitution of India is
(a) Rigid
(b) flexible
(c) partly rigid and flexible
(d) None of these

Question. Elections to the local government bodies are made mandatory by which amendment
(a) 72nd
(b) 73rd
(c) 64th
(d) 63rd

Question. Which Article of the Constitution of India deals with the Fundamental Duties
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 50
(c) Article51
(d) Article 51 A

Question. In India Right to Property is a
(a) Moral Right
(b) Legal Right
(c) Fundamental Right
(d) Personal Right

Question. Which article is referred to as ‘the jewel of the Constitution’
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 123
(c) Article 32
(d) Article 31

Question. Panchayath Raj is included in the
(a) Union list
(b) Concurrent list
(c) State list
(d) Residuary power

Question. Who appoints the chairman of the Finance Commission
(a) The President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Vice President

Question. The members of the Council of states in India is elected for a period of
(a) 4 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 6 years
(d) life term

Question. The President can’t ——————— Lok Sabha
(a) Dissolve
(b) adjourn
(c) prorogue
(d) summon

Question. Who elects the Vice President of India
(a) House of the People
(b) Both Houses of Parliament
(c) Council of States
(d) Both Houses of Parliament and state legislatures

Question. In consequence of the death or incapacity of the President, vice President can become the President for
(a) 6 months
(b) 12months
(c) 1 month
(d) 5 months

Question. Grass root democracy is related to
(a) Panchayath system
(b) Interstate council
(c) Lok Pal
(d) Regionalism

Question. The duration of an ordinance issued by the President of India is
(a) 6weeks
(b) 1 year
(c) 6 months
(d) 6 weeks from the date of assembly of the Parliament

Question. All speeches made in the House of People are addressed to
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Speaker
(c) Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(d) Respective Ministers

Question. Who promulgates ordinance in states
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice

Question. In India the Council of state is responsible to
(a) The people
(b) the state
(c) local government
(d) None of these

Question. The number of the Anglo Indians nominated to the House of People is
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1

Question. The number of nominated members to the council of states is
(a) 18
(b) 12
(c) 20
(d) 16

Question. Village Panchayath is organized under which article of the Constitution of India
(a) Article 37
(b) Article 38
(c) Article 39
(d) Article 40

Question. Among the following which agency conducts election to the local bodies
(a) National Election Commission
(b) State Election Commission
(c) Local bodies themselves
(d) the Government

Question. The chairman of the National Development Council is the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Vice President
(d) Governor

Question. The number of elected members to the House of the People
(a) 540
(b) 542
(c) 543
(d) 545

Question. Who is the person authorized to conduct the election of the speaker in a newly elected House of the People in India
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Speaker
(c) Proterm speaker
(d) Deputy Speaker

Question. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deal with
(a) centre-state relations
(b) Supreme Court
(c) state emergency
(d) national emergency

Question. Which Right was remarked by Dr B.R. Ambedkar as the “heart and soul of the Constitution”
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Education
(d) Right to Constitutional remedies

Question. The Indian constitution guarantees how many categories of Fundamental Rights
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8

Question. Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Speaker
(d) Chief Justice

Question. The amending power of the Constitution of India is described in Article
(a) 352
(b) 368
(c) 360
(d) 395

Question. The ex-officio chairman of the Council of states is
(a) Speaker
(b) Vice President
(c) Deputy Speaker
(d) Deputy Chairman

Question. Which Constitutional amendment incorporated the Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India?
(a) 40th
(b) 44th
(c) 42nd
(d) 50th

Question. Right to property was deleted by which amendment
(a) 71st
(b) 44th
(c) 42nd
(d) 68th

Question. Who said “the Preamble is the key to the Constitution”
(a) Dr B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) C. Rajagopalachari

Question. Rights given in the Constitution are called Fundamental Right because
(a) They are natural rights
(b) They can’t be suspended
(c) They are a part of the Constitution
(d) They can be enforced and safeguarded by the courts

Question. The emergency provisions of the Constitution of India have been borrowed from
(a) German Constitution
(b) American Constitution
(c) French Constitution
(d) Irish Constitution

Question. Concurrent list was adopted from
(a) Russian Constitution
(b) American Constitution
(c) Swiss constitution
(d) French Constitution

Question. Equality before law and Equal protection of law have been modelled on the Constitution of
(a) Britain
(b) America
(c) Russian
(d) Switzerland

Question. Right to Freedom is guaranteed in which article
(a) 17
(b) 19
(c) 18
(d) 20

Question. Directive Principles of State Policy is
(a) Justifiable
(b) non-justifiable
(c) mandatory
(d) None of these

Question. The word ‘secularism’ was added to the Preamble of the Constitution of India by which amendment
(a) 40th
(b) 42nd
(c) 44th
(d) 46th

Question. Which article of the constitution of India empower the President to take over the administration of a state on the basis of failure of constitutional machinery
(a) 365
(b) 352
(c) 356
(d) 360

Question. In India the power of ‘amnesty’ has been given to the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief of the army
(d) Parliament

Question. The President’s rule in a state can be continued at a stretch for a maximum period of
(a) 4years
(b) 2years
(c) 3 years
(d) one year

Question. Article 19 of the Constitution of India contains
(a) 9 Fundamental Freedoms
(b) 8 Fundamental Freedoms
(c) 7 Fundamental Freedoms
(d) 6 Fundamental Freedoms

Question. The Chairman of the National Human Rights Commission is appointed by
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Vice President
(d) Council of Ministers

Question. Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Freedom
(d) Right against exploitation

Question. The Council of state in India has how many elected members
(a) 250
(b) 238
(c) 245
(d) 230

Question. The executive power in India is actually exercised by
(a) Speaker
(b) President
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Parliament

Question. What is the maximum gap permissible between two sessions of the Parliament?
(a) 3 months
(b) 4 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 12 months

Question. The Governor of a state is a
(a) Constitutional head
(b) real head
(c) Hereditary head
(d) nominated head

Question. The Parliament of India consists of
(a) President, House of the People and Council of state
(b) House of the People and Council of states
(c) Vice President, House of People and Council of states
(d) President, Vice President, House of the People and Council of States

Question. The President of India can ———————- the House
(a) Sine die
(b) prorogue
(c) adjourn
(d) None of these

Question. 42nd amendment Act was adopted by the Parliament in
(a) 1967
(b) 1968
(c) 1976
(d) 1977

Question. The supreme commander of the armed forces in India is
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Defence Minister
(d) None of these

Question. Public Undertaking Committee is a
(a) Cabinet Committee
(b) Parliamentary Committee
(c) Committee of a political party
(d) None of these

Question. Recess means
(a) The interval between the prorogation of Parliament and its reassembly
(b) The Parliament in session
(c) Adjournment of the House
(d) Dissolution of the House

Question. Consolidated Fund is
(a) votable
(b) non votable
(c) non plan
(d) None of these

Question. Council of States in India can create an All India Service by
(a) Simple majority
(b) ¾ majority
(c) 2/3 majority
(d) unanimously

Question. Public Accounts Committee has members from
(a) House of the People
(b) Council of states only
(c) state legislatures
(d) Both Houses of Parliament

Question. Sine Die is associated with the power of the
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Prime Minister

Question. The Speaker use the ‘casting vote’
(a) to maintain status quo
(b) to challenge the opposition
(c) to defeat the government
(d) in the absence of the Prime Minister

Question. Council of states in India can delay a money bill for
(a) indefinite period
(b) 6 months
(c) 1 month
(d) 14 days

Question. Starred questions requires
(a) Oral answer
(b) unwritten answer
(c) supplementary question
(d) None of these

Question. ‘Who holds the purse holds the power’ who said this
(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Harold Laski
(c) Clement Attle
(d) James Madison

Question. Which article of the Constitution of India says “there shall be a council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advice the President”
(a) Article 74
(b) Article 75
(c) Article 79
(d) Article 80

Question. The President of the Indian Republic has
(a) Only suspensive veto
(b) Absolute veto
(c) Pocket veto
(d) None of these

Question. Which commission has examined the centre- state relations
(a) Sarkaria Commission
(b) Sri Krishna Commission
(c) Rajamannar Commission
(d) Kher Commission

Question. In the Indian federal system, residuary powers rest with the
(a) Local government
(b) State
(c) Judiciary
(d) Centre

Question. Unequal representation of states in the Council of States in India indicates
(a) The Federal nature
(b) the unitary features
(c) the bicameral features
(d) none of these

Question. Adjournment of the House is the power of the
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Council of Ministers

Question. Committee in Public Undertakings has members from
(a) Both Houses of Parliament
(b) Lok Sabha only
(c) Rajya Sabha only
(d) State Legislative Council

Question. Unstarred questions requires
(a) Oral answer
(b) Zero Hour
(c) supplementary question
(d) written answer

Question. The chairman of the National Development Council is
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Defence Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Home Minister

Question. The Indian federal system is largely based on the pattern of
(a) US Federal system
(b) Australian Federal system
(c) Swiss Federal system
(d) Canadian Federal system

Question. The Constitution of India adopted the federal system from the Act of
(a) 1919
(b) 1935
(c) 1947
(d) 1909

Question. Which article of the Constitution of India provides for co-operation between states
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 14
(d) Article 263

Question. The members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to
(a) Judiciary
(b) House of the People
(c) Council of States
(d) The President

Question. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the Governor of a state can resume a Bill for the consideration of the President
(a) Article 196
(b) Article 200
(c) Article 202
(d) Article 204

Question. The term federal is derived from the Latin word ‘foedus’ which means
(a) Separation
(b) Distribution
(c) Covenant
(d) None of these

Question. The members of the Planning Commission have the status equal to that of
(a) Central cabinet ministers
(b) state ministers
(c) Deputy Ministers
(d) Members of Parliament

Question. The President of India is elected by
(a) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament
(b) Members of both Houses of Parliament
(c) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and state legislative assemblies
(d) Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and both Houses of the state legislatures

Question. A vote taken unexpectedly without voters having been briefed in advance
(a) Snap poll
(b) by-election
(c) opinion poll
(d) exit poll

Question. Which among the following is not created by the Constitution
(a) Planning Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Election Commission
(d) UPSC

Question. Chairman of the Planning Commission is the
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Speaker

Question. Planning Commission was formed by Government of India by a resolution in
(a) 1950
(b) 1947
(c) 1944
(d) 1946

Question. Which of the following is not a feature of the Constitution of India?
(a) It is democratic
(b) it is republic
(c) it is federal
(d) it is Presidential

Question. The list dividing powers between union and states are given in the ————- schedule
(a) IV
(b) V
(c) VI
(d) VII

Question. Dyarchy was introduced at the Centre by the Act of
(a) 1909
(b) 1919
(c) 1935
(d) 1947

Question. The Constitution of India is parliamentary because
(a) There is an elected President
(b) there is a bicameral legislature
(c) There is a Supreme Court
(d) the executive is responsible to the Legislature

Question. India is a Republic in the sense that
(a) it has an elected Head of the state
(b) it has an elected Head of the Government
(c) it has a bi-cameral legislature
(d) it has sovereign power

Question. Chairman of the Finance Commission is appointed by the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Council of Ministers
(c) President
(d) Vice President

Question. The Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly was moved by
(a) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(b) B.R.Ambedkar
(c) Jawaharalal Nehru
(d) Alladi Krishna swamy Iyer

Question. The election to the Constituent Assembly was held in
(a) June 1946
(b) July 1946
(c) August 1946
(d) September 1946

Question. The Indian Constitution is an
(a) Enacted one
(b) evolved one
(c) unwritten one
(d) None of these

Question. Dyarchy was introduced at the Provincial level by the Act of
(a) 1892
(b) 1919
(c) 1935
(d) 1909

Question. The Montague Chelmsford Reforms is known as
(a) Government of India Act 1919
(b) Government of India Act 1935
(c) Government of India Act 1909
(d) Government of India Act 1892

Question. Government of India Act 1909 is known as
(a) Montague Chelmsford Reforms
(b) Minto Morley Reforms
(c) Cabinet Mission Plan
(d) Cripps Mission Plan

Question. National Integration Council reflects the —————– nature of the Indian Federal system
(a) Federal nature
(b) Unitary nature
(c) competitive nature
(d) con-federal nature

Question. Madan Mohan Punchi commission was appointed to study
(a) Centre-state relations
(b) State reorganization
(c) Panchayat Raj
(d) delimitation of constituencies

Question. The Objective Resolution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly in
(a) January 1947
(b) July 1947
(c) August 1947
(d) May 1947

Question. The Constitution Drafting Committee constituted by the Constituent Assembly consisted of
(a) 5 member
(b) 6members
(c) 7 members
(d) 8 members

Question. The Constitution of India consists of
(a) 390 articles
(b) 396 articles
(c) 395 articles
(d) 394 articles

Question. The procedure for amending the Constitution is in
(a) Article 368
(b) Article 360
(c) Article 367
(d) Article 371

Question. The Concurrent list in the Constitution of India was adopted from
(a) Switzerland
(b) Australia
(c) Canada
(d) Irish

Question. The Directive Principles of State Policy in the Constitution of India was adopted from
(a) Irish
(b) Canada
(c) Germany
(d) Australia

Question. The word “procedure established by law” in the constitution of India have been borrowed from
(a) UK
(b) USA
(c) French
(d) Germany

Question. The President of the Constituent Assembly was
(a) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(b) Dr Rajendra Prasad
(c) Sardar Vallabhai Patel
(d) Dr BR Ambedkar

Question. ”India that is Bharat shall be a union of states”. From which Constitution was adopted the words “union of states”?
(a) US
(b) France
(c) Swiss
(d) Canada

Question. The makers of the Constitution of India adopted the concept of Judicial Review from
(a) Russia
(b) Germany
(c) US
(d) Australia

Question. Untouchability Offence Act 1955 was renamed as “The Protection of Civil Rights Act 1955” in
(a) 1972
(b) 1977
(c) 1976
(d) 1955

Question. The Constitution of India was adopted on
(a) 26th January 1950
(b) 26th January 1947
(c) 26th November 1949
(d) 26th June 1948

Question. Which among the following Acts introduced the principle of election for the first time?
(a) Indian Independence Act of 1947
(b) Indian Council Act 1909
(c) Government of India Act 1935
(d) Government of India Act 1919

Question. Directive Principles of state Policy are included in the Articles
(a) 15-24
(b) 25-32
(c) 36-51
(d) 52-60

Question. Right to Property was omitted from Part III of the Constitution by the
(a) 42nd amendment
(b) 44th amendment
(c) 86th amendment
(d) 62nd amendment

Question. Who prepares the agenda in meeting of the Council of Ministers
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Deputy Prime Minister
(d) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

Question. The Chairman of Council of States is elected by
(a) Elected members of Council of States
(b) All members of the Council of States
(c) Members of both Houses of Parliament
(d) elected members of the Parliament

Question. Which of the following is not an objective of the Directive Principles of State Policy
(a) To ensure a welfare state
(b) to ensure socio-economic justice
(c) To establish a religious state
(d) to ensure the creation of village Panchayath

Question. The Indian federal system can be transformed into a unitary system under
(a) Article 368
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 352

Question. Fundamental Rights are included in articles
(a) 15-24
(b) 12-36
(c) 36-51
(d) 52-62

Question. Community Development Program was launched on
(a) 2nd October 1951
(b) 2nd October 1952
(c) 2nd October 1953
(d) 2nd October 1954

Question. To organize village Panchayath as units of self government is an example of
(a) Liberal principle
(b) Economic principle
(c) Gandhian principle
(d) None of these

Question. A member of the Parliament formally loss his membership if he consecutively abstain himself from ————– sitting of the House
(a) 15
(b) 30
(c) 60
(d) 90

Question. In India a person can be a member of the Council of Ministers without being a Member of Parliament for a maximum period
(a) 1 month
(b) 6 month
(c) 1 year
(d) 2 years

Question. Who is the Head of the Government in India?
(a) The President
(b) the Prime Minister
(c) the speaker
(d) the Deputy Chairman of Rajya sabha

Question. The Head of the government under a Parliamentary government enjoys
(a) Real power
(b) nominal power
(c) limited power
(d) no power

Question. The classification of government as unitary and federal is on the basis of
(a) Centralization of power
(b) division of power
(c) delegation of powers
(d) separation of powers

Question. Majority provisions of the Constitution of India can be amended by
(a) the Parliament
(b) The President
(c) the State Legislature
(d) the Parliament of the consent of states

Question. The Governor of a state can nominate how many members to the Legislative Assembly?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 5

Question. The revenue estimate of a budget are prepared by
(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Central Ministry of Finance
(c) Union Council of Ministers
(d) Respective Ministers

Question. The Cabinet Mission was appointed
(a) To work out the modalities for the transfer of power
(b) to finalise the date for the transfer of power
(c) To discuss the Plan of partition
(d) to partition of Bengal

Question. Provincial autonomy was introduced by the Act of
(a) 1935
(b) 1919
(c) 1909
(d) 1947

(Question. The interim government proposed under the Cabinet Mission Plan was formed on
(a) 15th August 1946
(b) 2nd September 1946
(c) 26th July 1947
(d) 26th January 1950

Question. Which among the following type of authority is given to the President of India?
(a) Political
(b) Defacto
(c) Dejure
(d) Popular

Question. The Public Accounts Committee submits its report to the
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Council of States
(d) House of the People

Question. The British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act in
(a) July 1947
(b) January 1947
(c) June 1947
(d) August 1947

Question. Periodic elections to the local bodies are made mandatory by
(a) 72nd amendment
(b) 73rd amendment
(c) 86th amendment
(d) 87th amendment

Question. Mandal Commission recommendations were appointed by
(a) Rajiv Gandhi
(b) A B Vajpayee
(c) P V Narasimha Rao
(d) V P Singh

Question. The committee which examine the ‘extravagance’ of the government
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Estimates Committee
(c) Public Undertaking Committee
(d) Ad hoc Committee

Question. The budget is an instrument of control by
(a) the Government
(b) the Executive
(c) the Legislature
(d) the Judiciary

Question. Separate electorate for Muslims were introduced by the Act of
(a) 1919
(b) 1935
(c) 1909
(d) 1947

Question. Minto Morley Reforms is also known as
(a) Government of India Act 1919
(b) Government of India Act 1892
(c) Government of India Act 1935
(d) Government of India Act 1909

Question. The Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court was adopted from the Constitution of
(a) Germany
(b) US
(c) Australia
(d) Canada

Question. The Union Legislature in India is empowered
(a) Not to amend the basic structure of the Constitution
(b) to amend the basic structure of the Constitution
(c) To abrogate the basic structure
(d) None of these

Question. Preventive Detention is a reasonable restriction on
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 32

Question. How many duties are included in the Constitution as Fundamental Duties?
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 9
(d) 6

Question. Finance Commission is constituted every 5 years by the
(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) Union Council of Ministers
(d) Speaker

Question. The Union Government gives grants-in-aid to the states on the recommendations of the
(a) Planning Commission
(b) National Integration Council
(c) Finance Commission
(d) National Development Council

Question. From among the following which amendment of the Constitution of India made “education to Children” as a Fundamental Duty?
(a) 86th
(b) 85th
(c) 42nd
(d) 72nd

Question. National Development Council was constituted in
(a) 1950
(b) 1951
(c) 1952
(d) 1947

Question. The power of the President to consult the Supreme Court is under Article
(a) 132
(b) 143
(C) 136
(d) 131

Question. The sequence of procedure for passing a Bill in the House is
(a) First reading, Committee stage, report stage, second reading, third reading
(b) First reading, second reading, committee stage, report stage, third reading
(c) First reading, second reading, third reading, Committee stage, report stage
(d) First reading, Committee stage, second reading, third reading

Question. In a federal system the guardian of the Constitution is
(a) the Parliament
(b) the Judiciary
(c) the council of Ministers
(d) the National Security Advisor

Question. The qualification for the Chairman and the members of the Finance Commission are specified in
(a) Finance Act of 1951
(b) Finance Act of 1952
(c) Finance Act of 1950
(d) Finance Act of 1953

Question. Which among the following is empowered to constitute Inter State Council?
(a) The Parliament
(b) The President
(c) The National Development Council
(d) The Planning Commission

Question. The salary of judges during their offices can be reduced by the
(a) Article 352
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 359

Question. The unlawful detention of a person is questioned by the writ of
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Certiorari
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Mandamus

Question. The High Court has the power to issue writ under article
(a) 32
(b) 220
(c) 226
(d) 344

Question. The power of the Supreme Court can be enlarged by
(a) Cabinet
(b) Parliament
(c) President
(d) Chief Justice

Question. Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from offices by
(a) Executive order
(b) Impeachment
(c) Judicial order
(d) Bureaucracy

Question. Balvant Rai Mehta Committee was appointed to review
(a) National Extension Service
(b) Panchayati Raj
(c) Electoral system
(d) Community Development Programme

Question. The Committee appointed in 1977 to study the working of Panchayati Raj institutions was under the chairmanship of
(a) Balvant Rai Mehta
(b) Ashok Mehta
(c) GVK Rao
(d) LM Singhvi

Question. Which article of the Constitution of India deals with the Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
(a) Article 74
(b) Article 142
(c) Article 143
(d) Article 147

Question. Subjects in the ————– schedule is beyond the scope of Judicial Review
(a) 8th
(b) 9th
(c) 12th
(d) 3rd

Question. Which of the following is the inevitable outcome of liberalization?
(a) Retrace of the state
(b) reentry of the state
(c) Neutrality of the state
(d) None of these

Question. The High Court in India do not possess
(a) Original jurisdiction
(b) Appellate jurisdiction
(c) Advisory jurisdiction
(d) Revisory jurisdiction

Question. Provisions under 9th schedule
(a) Can be challenged in a court of law
(b) Can’t challenge in a court of law
(c) Can seek opinion in a court of law
(d) None of these

Question. Under which article of the Constitution the Supreme Court of India has been established
(a) 24
(b) 124
(c) 224
(d) 231

Question. Which of the following is inherent in communalism
(a) Peace for all religious sects
(b) racial overtone
(c) Ethnic rivalry
(d) Antagonistic assertion in all spheres of life

Question. Original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is contained in
(a) Article 131
(b) Article 129
(c) Article 132
(d) Article 136

Question. Article 32 stands suspended during an emergency under Article
(a) 352
(b) 356
(c) 360
(d) 362

Question. Right to privacy is contained in
(a) Article 22
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 22

Question. National Extension Service was launched on
(a) 2nd October 1953
(b) 2nd October 1952
(c) 2nd October 1951
(d) 2nd October 1950

Question. Political homogeneity is a feature of
(a) Presidential system
(b) Parliamentary system
(c) Democratic system
(d) Collegiate executive

Question. Freedom of expression is included in the article
(a) 15
(b) 19
(c) 21
(d) 22

Question. The states enjoy exclusive jurisdiction over subjects of
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Residuary List
(d) Concurrent list

Question. Which is the list that contains subjects in which both the centre and the states can legislate?
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Residuary list
(d) Concurrent list

Question. The authority to alter the boundaries of state in India rests with
(a) State government
(b) Parliament
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President