Indian Constitution Institutions and Processes MCQ Questions

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MCQ with Answers for Indian Constitution Institutions and Processes

Question. Which one of the followings has been enlisted as a fundamental duty in the constitution?
(a) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired the freedom struggle in India.
(b) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
(c) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(d) All the above.

Question. The inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution was
(a) Unanimously welcomed.
(b) Welcomed by the opposition parties only.
(c) Welcomed by the ruling only.
(d) None of the above.

Question. Which of the following are the States in which the LokAyukta Act includes the chief Minister in its ambit?
(a) West Bengal and Kerala.
(b) Gujarat and Maharashtra.
(c) Madhya Pradesh and Orissa.
(d) Rajasthan and Karnadaka.

Question. Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion is a Fundamental Rights classified under
(a) The Right to Freedom of Religion.
(b) The Right against Exploitation .
(c) The Cultural and Educational Rights .
(d) The Rights to Equality.

Question. Which one of the followings is not a Fundamental duty as outlined in Article 51A of the Constitution?
(a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals.
(b) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
(c) To work for the moral upliftment of the weaker sections of society.
(d) To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.

Question. Which one of the followings has been wrongly listed as a Fundamental duty of the Indian citizens?
(a) To develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform.
(b) To work for raising the prestige of the country in the international sphere.
(c) To protect and improve the natural environment.
(d) To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.

Question. The National Commission for Scheduled Caste was created by
(a) 87th amendment.
(b) 88th amendment.
(c) 89th amendment.
(d) 92nd amendment.

Question. Which one of the following amendment of the constitution abolished the Privy Purses and privileges of the Indian Princes?
(a) 26th amendment.
(b) 28th amendment.
(c) 30th amendment.
(d) 32nd amendment.

Question. Which one of the following features has been wrongly listed as a feature of Right to Equality?
(a) It ensures equality in the matter of appointment to offices under the State .
(b) It abolishes all titles, other than academic and military.
(c) It abolishes untouchability.
(d) It prohibits special treatment of any section of society including the women and children, etc.

Question. The Six Freedoms of the Indian Citizens have been enshrined in :
(a) Article 14 to 18.
(b) Article 14to 35.
(c) Article 19.
(d) Articles 21 to 26.

Question. Right against exploitation seeks to protect the weaker sections of society by
(a) Prohibiting traffic in human beings and begar.
(b) Prescribing minimum wages for the workers.
(c) Placing a ban on introduction of compulsory service by the state on the plea of public interest.
(d) None of the above.

Question. The Constitution grants Cultural and Educational Rights with a view to
(a) Evolve a common national culture.
(b) Eradicate illiteracy from the country.
(c) To help the minorities conserve their culture.
(d) None of the above.

Question. Which one of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R Ambedkar as ‘the heart and soul of the Constitution’?
(a) Right to Equality.
(b) Right to Freedom.
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies.
(d) Right to Freedom of Religion.

Question. The President of India elected for
(a) Life.
(b) Four years.
(c) 5 years.
(d) 6 years.

Question. Under the Indian Constitution no person can hold office of the President for more than
(a) One term.
(b) Two terms.
(c) Three terms.
(d) There is no such ban under the Constitution.

Question. The Right to Constitutional Remedies means?
(a) The right of the citizens to request the Parliament to amend the Constitution.
(b) The right of Indian citizens to mobilise public opinion in favour of some constitutional amendments.
(c) Right of citizens to disobey the Constitution under certain circumstances.
(d) Right to move the courts for enforcement of fundamentals rights granted by the Constitution.

Question. Which one of the following writs is issued by the High Court to lower court or a nonjudicial public institution to stop proceedings in a particular case?
(a) Habeas Corpus.
(b) Prohibition.
(c) Quo Warranto.
(d) Certiorari.

Question. Which one of the following writs is issued by a higher court asking the lower court to send the record of a particular case to it on the ground that it is not competent to decide the case?
(a) Habeas Corpus.
(b) Quo Warranto.
(c) Certiorari.
(d) Mandamus.

Question. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens cannot be suspended under any circumstances.
(b) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the Parliament by a two-third majority.
(c) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the president during the national emergency.
(d) The fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended by the President during the national emergency as well as emergency arising due to breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state.

Question. Which one of the following statement is correct?
(a) The Fundamental Rights granted by the Indian Constitution are absolute.
(b) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizens are non- justiciable.
(c) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens are justiciable.
(d) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens protect them against the tyranny of the majority.

Question. Which one of the following has been wrongly shown as freedom granted under the Right to Freedom?
(a) Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms.
(b) Freedom to profess, practice and propagate any religion.
(c) Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country .
(d) Freedom of profession, occupation, trade or business.

Question. Which one of the following has been omitted from the list of freedom by the Forty-Fourth Amendment?
(a) Freedom of association .
(b) Freedom of residence and settlement.
(c) Freedom of movement throughout the territory of India.
(d) Freedom of acquiring, holding and disposing of property.

Question. The Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution can be suspended during
(a) General election.
(b) National emergency.
(c) All type of emergencies.
(d) In all the above cases.

Question. The orders for the suspension of Fundamental Rights are issued
(a) By the Parliament .
(b) By the President on the recommendation of the Supreme Court.
(c) By the President with the approval of the Parliament.
(d) By the President with the approval of the Council of Ministers.

Question. The preventive Detention Act curtailed the
(a) Right to Freedom.
(b) Right to Equality.
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies.
(d) Right to Freedom of Religion.

Question. Which one of the following Fundamentals Rights has been the subject of maximum litigation and controversy?
(a) Right to Property.
(b) Right to Equality.
(c) Right to Freedom of Religion.
(d) Right to Freedom.

Question. Which one of the following points of criticism against the Fundamental Rights has been wrongly listed?
(a) The economic and social rights do not find any place in the Chapter on Fundamental Rights
(b) The Fundamental Rights are absolute and attach too much importance to the interests of the individual .
(c) The remedies for the protection of the fundamental rights are very expensive and beyond the capacity of ordinary citizens.
(d) The rights are hedged with so many restrictions and limitations that they virtually became ineffective.

Question. Which one of the following authorities is authorised by the Constitution to impose reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights?
(a) The Parliament.
(b) The Supreme Court.
(c) The President.
(d) None of the above .

Question. The Right to freedom of religion granted by the Indian Constitution implies that the Indian citizens
(a) Are free to have faith in a religion other than the state religion.
(b) Have to follow the religion of the state.
(c) Have the freedom to profess, practice or propagate a religion of their choice.
(d) Not having faith in some religion shall not be appointed to government offices.

Question. Right to Freedom of Religion means
(a) Religious instructions shall be provided in all government educational institutions.
(b) State shall encourage religious thinking and give preference to persons with religious bent of mind in matter of employment.
(c) All persons shall have right to establish institutions for religious and educational purposes.
(d) None of the above.

Question. The Fundamental Duties of the Indian Citizens.
(a) Formed a part of the original Constitution.
(b) Were added by the Forty-Second Amendment.
(c) Were added by the Forty-Fourth Amendment.
(d) Were defined by the parliament through a law enacted during the emergency.

Question. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens are contained in
(a) Part I of the Constitution.
(b) Part III of the Constitution.
(c) Part IV-A of the Constitution.
(d) None of the above part of the Constitution.

Question. Under which one of the following writs a person can be prevented from taking an action to which he is officially not entitled?
(a) Mandamus.
(b) Quo Warranto.
(c) Certiorari.
(d) Mandamus.

Question. To which of the following rights the foreigners are entitled under the Indian Constitution
(a) Right against exploitation.
(b) Right to equality before law.
(c) Right to life and Personal Liberty.
(d) All the above rights.

Question. The Fundamental Duties were added to constitution because
(a) Majority of the people wanted it.
(b) A section of people was not fulfilling its obligation of respecting the established legal order.
(c) The government felt this would ensure quicker progress of the country .
(d) The Supreme Court emphasised the need of incorporation of these duties in the Constitution.

Question. Which one of the followings is not included as a Fundamental Duty?
(a) Abidance by Constitution and respect for its ideals and institutions .
(b) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
(c) To ensure rule of law in the country.
(d) To safeguard public property and to adjure violence.

Question. Which of the following rights can be claimed only by the citizens and not by aliens within the territory of India?
I. Freedom of speech.
II. Right to form associations of Unions.
III. Equality before law.
IV. Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below : Codes :
(a) I, II and III.
(b) II, III and IV.
(c) I, II and IV.
(d) I, III and IV.

Question. To whom among the followings is the Right against exploitation guaranteed by the Indian Constitution?
I. Children.
II. Tribals.
III. Women.
IV. Harijans.
Select the correct answer using the following codes:
(a) I and III.
(b) II and IV.
(c) III and IV.
(d) I and II .

Question. In an emergency the fundamental rights of citizens
(a) May be suspended.
(b) Stand automatically suspended.
(c) Can be enjoyed only with the approval of the Supreme Court.
(d) Have no meaning.

Question. The main objective of the Directive Principles is to
(a) Establish political democracy in the country.
(b) Establish social and economic democracy in the country .
(c) Raise the moral and ethical standard of the people.
(d) Establish a police state in the country.

Question. Which one of the followings has been wrongly listed as a Directive Principle
(a) Provision of adequate means of livelihood for all the citizens.
(b) Provision of employment facilities to all able- bodied persons .
(c) Protection of workers, especially children.
(d) Securing of equal pay for equal work to both men and women.

Question. The Directive Principle of State Policy
(a) Were added by the Forty-Second Amendment.
(b) Formed a part of the original Constitution.
(c) Do not from a part of the Constitution.
(d) Were added by the first three amendments to the Constitution.

Question. The framers of the Indian Constitution borrowed the idea of Directive Principles of State Policy from
(a) The Government of India Act,1935.
(b) The Government of U.S.S. R.
(c) The Constitution of U.S.A.
(d) The Constitution of Irish Republic.

Question. The Constitution vests the responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights
(a) Exclusively with the Supreme Court .
(b) Both with the High Courts and the Supreme Court.
(c) With all the courts in the country.
(d) None of the above.

Question. The Fundamental duties were added to the Constitution
(a) To make the Fundamental Rights more effective.
(b) To check anti- national, subversive and unconstitutional agitations.
(c) To accord priority to the directive principles over fundamental rights .
(d) To achieve all the above objectives.

Question. The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in
(a) Part I of the Constitution.
(b) Part III of the Constitution.
(c) Part IV of the Constitution .
(d) None of the above parts.

Question. The Directive Principles are in the nature of
(a) Injunction to the government to refrain from doing certain things
(b) Instructions to the government to do certain things.
(c) Request to the government to pay attention to certain subjects.
(d) Judicial injunction to the government to enact certain laws.

Question. Economic Survey in India is Published officially every year by the
(a) Reserve Bank of India.
(b) Planning Commission, Government of India.
(c) Ministry of Finance, Government of India.
(d) Ministry of Industries, Government of India.

Question. A British Citizen Staying in Indian cannot claim Right to
(a) Freedom of trade and profession.
(b) Equality before law.
(c) Protection of Life and personal liberty.
(d) Freedom of religion.

Question. The Directive Principles were incorporated in the Constitution with a view to
(a) Ensure a democratic government in the country.
(b) Provided a strong central government .
(c) Establish welfare state.
(d) Raise the living standard of the weaker sections of society .

Question. Which one of the Followings has been wrongly listed as a Directive Principle?
(a) Complete freedom in the economic sphere in the interest of consumers as well as producers.
(b) Regulation of economic system of the country with a view to prevent concentration of wealth and means of production.
(c) To ensure decent standard of living and facilities of leisure for all workers.
(d) To protect the children and youth against exploitation.

Question. Which one of the following is in the concurrent list in the Constitution of India?
(a) Population control and family planning.
(b) Public health and sanitation.
(c) Capitation taxes.
(d) Treasure trove .

Question. Which one of the following comes under the Jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court?
(a) Disputes between the centre and States.
(b) Disputes between the States inter Supreme Court.
(c) Protection of the Fundamental Rights
(d) Protection against the violation of Constitution.

Question. Which one of the following rights is vital for the successful working of democracy?
(a) Right to property.
(b) Right to association.
(c) Right to assemble.
(d) Right to Criticise.

Question. The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens have been enumerated from
(a) Article 12 to 35 of the Constitution.
(b) Article 13 to 36 of the Constitution .
(c) Article 15 to 39 of the Constitution.
(d) Article 16 to 40 of the Constitution.

Question. The Anti- Defection Law was enacted as early as 1979 in
(a) Kerala .
(b) Jammu &Kashmir.
(c) West Bengal.
(d) Tamilnadu.

Question. Which one of the following determines that Indian Constitution is Federal?
(a) A Written and rigid Constitution.
(b) An Independent Judiciary.
(c) Vesting of residuary powers with the Country .
(d) Distribution of powers between centre and the States.

Question. Agricultural income tax is assigned to the State government by
(a) The Finance Commission.
(b) The National Development Council.
(c) The Inter State Council .
(d) The Constitution of India.

Question. Which one of the following is not a Principle of ‘Panchsheel’
(a) Non-alignment .
(b) Peaceful Co-existence.
(c) Mutual respect for each other’s territorial integrity and Sovereignty,
(d) Mutual non- interference in each othersinternal affairs.

Question. Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the President of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment ?
(a) LokSabha.
(b) RajyaSabha.
(c) State Legislative Councils.
(d) State Legislative Assemblies.

Question. The Speaker Can ask a member of the House to stop seeking and let another member speak this phenomenon is known as
(a) Decorum.
(b) Crossing the Floor.
(c) Interpellation.
(d) Yielding the floor.

Question. The concept of public interest litigation originated in
(a) USA.
(b) UK.
(c) Australia.
(d) Canada.

Question. The State which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the LokSabha is
(a) Bihar.
(b) Gujarat.
(c) Uttar Pradesh.
(d) Madhya Pradesh .

Question. According to the Constitution of India, the term ‘District Judge’ shall not include
(a) Chief Presidency Magistrate.
(b) Sessions Judge.
(c) Tribunal Judge.
(d) Chief Judge of a Small Cause Court.

Question. In which way does the Indian Parliament exercise Control over the administration
(a) Through parliamentary Committees.
(b) Through Consultative committees of Various Ministries.
(c) By Making the administrators and periodic reports .
(d) By Compelling the executive to issue writs.

Question. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution was added by
(a) First Amendment .
(b) Eighth Amendment .
(c) Ninth Amendment .
(d) Forty Amendment.

Question. The resolution for removing the Vice- President of India can be moved in the
(a) LokSabha alone.
(b) Either House of Parliament .
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament .
(d) RajyaSabha alone.

Question. The Council of Ministers is there to aid and advice the President in the exercise of his functions:
(a) But the President is not bound to accept its advice.
(b) But the President can act in his discretion in certain matters.
(c) But the President may not seek its advice and thus bypass the Council of Ministers.
(d) And the President is bound to act on the advice of the Council Members

Question. The meetings of the Council of Members are presided over by:
(a) The President.
(b) The Speaker.
(c) The Prime Minister.
(d) By all the Ministers in rotation.

Question. Who among the following was the chairman of Union Constitution Committee of the Constitution Assembly.
(a) B.R Ambedkar.
(b) J.B Kripalani.
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru .
(d) Alladi Krishna Swami Ayyar.

Question. Which one of the following subjects is under the Union list in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
(a) Regulation of Labour and Safety in mines and oil fields.
(b) Agriculture .
(c) Fisheries .
(d) Public health .

Question. Which one of the following Directive Principles can be described as Gandhian in Character?
(a) Provision of equal work to both men and women.
(b) Protection of workers, especially children.
(c) Separation of the judiciary from the executive.
(d) Organisation of village panchayats as effective units of self – government.

Question. Which one of the following Directive Principle is non-Gandhian?
(a) Promotion of cottage industries in rural areas.
(b) Prohibition of the use of intoxicants except for the medical purposes.
(c) Prevention of slaughter of cows, calves and other milch cattle.
(d) Provision of free and compulsory education for all the children up to the age of fourteen years .

Question. If the Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within
(a) 1 month .
(b) 3 month.
(c) 6month.
(d) 1year.

Question. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidate fund of India must come from.
(a) The President of India.
(b) The Parliament of India .
(c) The Prime Minister of India .
(d) The Union Finance Minister .

Question. Which one of the following amendment reduce the voting age from 21 years to 18 years ?
(a) 52nd Amendment.
(b) 60th Amendment.
(c) 61st Amendment.
(d) None of the above.

Question. Which amendment accorded statutory status to the Commission for Scheduled Casts and Scheduled Tribes?
(a) 64th.
(b) 65th.
(c) 68th.
(d) 70th.

Question. According to the Constitution of India, Which of the following are Fundamental for the governance of the Country .
(a) Fundamental Rights .
(b) Fundamental Duties.
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy.
(d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties

Question. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as a defect of the constitutional procedures in India?
(a) Only the Parliament can propose amendments.
(b) Majority of the provisions of the constitution can be changed by the Parliament single-handed.
(c) There is no provision for referendum on Constitutional Amendments.
(d) None of the above.

Question. Which one of the following amendment of the Constitution did away with the privileges and concessions enjoyed by the I.C.S. Office.
(a) 24th Amendment.
(b) 28thAmendment.
(c) 29th Amendment.
(d) 42nd Amendment.

Question. Which one of the following amendment sought to overcome the restrictions on the power of the parliament to amend the FundamentalRights( as per decision of Supreme Court in the GolakNath Case)?
(a) 23rd Amendment.
(b) 24th Amendment.
(c) 25thAmendment.
(d) None of the Above.

Question. The framers of the constitution drew inspiration for adoption of Parliamentary government from
(a) Britain.
(b) Switzerland.
(c) France.
(d) U.S.A.

Question. The concept of basic structure of the constitution propounded in a KeshavanandBharati case was further elaborated and strengthened in
(a) Indira Gandhi Vs Raj Narain case.
(b) Minerva Mills case.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above .

Question. In mid-seventies Congress under Mrs Indira Gandhi constituted a Review Committee which was headed by
(a) Swaran Singh.
(b) A R Antulay.
(c) H R Gokhale.
(d) None of the above .

Question. The Parliamentary Government in the western sense was introduced in India by
(a) The British in 1833.
(b) The French in 1680.
(c) The British in 1858.
(d) None of the Above.

Question. The decision regarding adoption of Parliamentary Government was taken by the Constituent Assembly
(a) Unanimously .
(b) By an overwhelming majority.
(c) by the caste in votes of the President of the Assembly.
(d) None of the above.

Question. Which one of the following Amendment of the Constitution is reacted with right to private property ?
(a) First Amendment .
(b) Fourth Amendment.
(c) Seventeenth Amendment.
(d) All the above.

Question. The office of the Prime Minister of India
(a) Has been created by the constitution .
(b) Rests on conventions .
(c) He has been predicted by parliamentary statute .
(d) Is the result of the combination of the all the above three factors.

Question. The Prime Minister is the head of
(a) State.
(b) Government.
(c) Both state and government.
(d) Neither state nor Government.

Question. Which one of the following Amendments removed Rights to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights and made it only a legal right?
(a) 42nd Amendment.
(b) 44th Amendment.
(c) 48th Amendment.
(d) 52nd Amendment.

Question. Which one of the following amendment is regarded as a ‘mini revision of the Constitution’?
(a) 42nd amendment.
(b) 44th amendment.
(c) 52nd amendment.
(d) None of the above.

Question. Which one of the following amendment was concerned with the extension of reservation of seats for the Schedule Castes?
(a) Eighth amendment.
(b) 23rd amendment.
(c) 45th amendment.
(d) All the above .

Question. Which amendment provided a constitutional guarantee to the formulation of the Panchayatsat village and other levels ?
(a) 73rd Amendment.
(b) 74th Amendment.
(c) 84th Amendment.
(d) None of the above.

Question. Which amendment empowered the state to make provision for reservation in promotion in government jobs in favour of Scheduled Cast and Scheduled Tribes?
(a) 74th amendment.
(b) 75th amendment.
(c) 77th amendment.
(d) None of the above.

Question. The purpose of the inclusion of DPSP in the Indian Constitution is to establish
(a) Political Democracy .
(b) Social democracy .
(c) Gandhian democracy .
(d) Social and economic democracy.

Question. Five year plan in India is finally approved by
(a) Union Cabinet .
(b) President on the advice of Prime minister .
(c) Planning Commission .
(d) National Development Council.

Question. Which amendment authorised the government to fill the backlog of vacancies for the Scheduled Castes(15%) and Scheduled Tribes (7.1/2%) as these 2 vacancies are to be treated as a separate class of vacancies to be filled in any succeeding year or years.
(a) 81st
(b) 85th
(c) 86th
(d) None of the Above

Question. Which amendment of the Constitution stipulates that the state shall provided free and compulsory education to all children if the age 6-14 years?
(a) 85th
(b) 86th
(c) 90th
(d) 91st

Question. Consider the following statements regarding the amendment processing in India.
1. Majority of the provision of the Constitution can be amended by the Parliament alone either by simple majority or by two third majority?
2. No time-limit has been prescribed by the Constitution for ratification of amendments by the states.
3. Certain amendment can be initiated only by the states
4. There is no provision in the Constitution to resolve the deadlock between the two houses of Parliament over the amendment of the Constitution?
Of the above statements
(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct.
(b) 2,3 and 4 are correct.
(c) 1,3 and 4 are correct.
(d) 1,2 and 4 are correct.

Question. Which one of the following defects of the process of constitutional amendment in India has been wrongly listed?
(a) It is not clear as to what would happen the President refuses to give his assent an amendment passed by the two house.
(b) Certain provisions of the constitution be amended only after these have been approved in a referendum.
(c) The states cannot initiate amendment.
(d) There is no provision for resolution deadlock between the two house Parliament over amendment of Constitution.

Question. In urban areas the behaviour of the voters is generally greatly influenced by
(a) The educational qualification of candidate.
(b) The party affiliation of the candidate.
(c) The Caste and profession.
(d) All the above factors.

Question. The President of India is :
(a) Directly elected by the people .
(b) Indirectly elected by the member of Parliament.
(c) Indirectly elected by the members of state legislatures.
(d) Indirectly elected through an electoral college .

Question. The electoral college constituted for the election of the President consists of :
(a) All the member of Parliament.
(b) All the member of the Parliament plus all the State Legislative Assemblies.
(c) The elected member of both Houses of Parliament and the elected member of the Legislative Assemblies of States.
(d) None of the above .

Question. The concept of ‘basic structure of the Constitution’ gained currency flowing Supreme Court’s judgement in
(a) GolakNath case.
(b) Keshananda Bharti case.
(c) Minerva Mills case.
(d) None of the above case.

Question. Which one of the following has been wronglylisted as a feature of the basic structure of the Constitution?
(a) Sovereignty of the People.
(b) Supremacy of the Constitution.
(c) Republication Polity.
(d) None of the above.

Question. Swaran Singh Committee which was constituted to re-examine the Constitution during emergency recommended
(a) Continuance of the existing Parliamentary system of government .
(b) Centre should be empowered to declare emergency in any part of the country.
(c) Centre should have the authority to send police in any part of the country.
(d) All the above .

Question. Which Amendment provided that if any law was passed by the parliament to give effect to the Directive Principles of State Policy under Article 39 (b) or (c), it could not be declared void on the ground that it was inconsistent with the rights conferred under Article 14,19 and 31?
(a) 25th Amendment.
(b) 29th Amendment.
(c) 33rd Amendment.
(d) 42nd Amendment.

Question. Which Amendment of the Constitution whichConduits provisions regarding disqualifications on grounds of defection?
(a) 51st Amendment.
(b) 52nd Amendment.
(c) 53rd Amendment.
(d) None of the above.

Question. Which one of the following recommendation was not made by the Swaran Singh was Committee.
(a) Amendment of the Preamble.
(b) Supremacy of Parliament with regard to amendment of the Constitution.
(c) More power should be granted to the Centre.
(d) In matters of land reforms the jurisdiction of the High Court should be ended.

Question. On the occasion of the Golden Jubilee of the Indian Constitution Vajpayee Government decided National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (NCRWC) under the Chairmanship of
(a) R.S Sarkaria.
(b) Justice B.P JeevanReddy .
(c) Justice M.N Venkatachalaih.
(d) P.A Sangama.

Question. Which one of the following was a recommendation of the Tarkunde Committee appointed in 1974 to purpose election reforms?
(a) Lowering of the age of voters from 21 years to 18 years.
(b) Appointment of Election Commission in the recommendation of a high powered committee.
(c) Grant of autonomy to Radio and Television.
(d) All the above.

Question. Which one of the following has been wrongly listed as a shortcomings of the electoral process in India?
(a) Growing use of corrupt parties.
(b) Growing use of money and muscle power.
(c) Presence of large number of regional political parties.
(d) Presence of large number of independent candidates in the contest.

Question. An amendment was carried out to the Representation of people’s Act in 1996. By this amendment
(a) The amount of security deposit was increased.
(b) Candidate were debarred from contesting from more than one constituency.
(c) Persons insulating the national flag were disqualified from contesting the elections for six years.
(d) All the above provisions were made.

Question. Which one of the following qualifications for the office of the President has been wrongly listed?
(a) He must be a citizen of India.
(b) He must be more than thirty-five years of age.
(c) He must possess qualifications laid down for election asmember of the Lok Sabha.
(d) He must be a member of either House of Parliament .

Question. The candidates for the office of the President must be sponsored by
(a) At least 25 electors.
(b) At least 50 electors .
(c) At least two ministers.
(d) None of the above.

Question. The oath of office to the President is conducted by
(a) The Chief Justice of India.
(b) The Prime Minister.
(c) The Vice-President of India.
(d) None of the above.

Question. Right to Cultural and Educational Right implies
(a) Provision of free and compulsory education up to High School.
(b) Special assistance to backward classes to educate them.
(c) Provision of religious and cultural instructions in schools run by the government or receiving aid out of government funds.
(d) Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.

Question. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Right to Private Property was incorporated in the Constitution by the Forty-Second Amendment.
(b) The Right to private property was granted by the original Constitution but it has since been removed the List of Fundamental Rights.
(c) The Right to Property was never a fundamental right under the Indian Constitution.
(d) The Right to Private Property which was granted by the original constitution has been made more sacrosanct by the Forty-Fourth Amendment .

Question. The election of the office of the president is conducted by
(a) Speaker of Lok-Sabha.
(b) Secretary- General of the parliament.
(c) Chief Justice of India.
(d) The Election Commission of India.

Question. The Vice – President of India is elected :
(a) By the people.
(b) Elected by the members of State Legislative Assemblies.
(c) Elected by the members of Rajya Sabha.
(d) Elected by the members of the two Houses of Parliament at a joint sitting .

Question. Which one of the following qualifications for the office of the Vice –President of India has been wrongly listed?
(a) He must be citizen of India.
(b) He must have completed the age of thirty five years.
(c) He must be a member of Rajya Sabha.
(d) He must not hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State or under any local or other authority, subject to the control of said governments..

Question. The vacancy in the office of the president must be filled up within
(a) 90 Days.
(b) 6 Months.
(c) One year.
(d) The period declared by the parliament.

Question. The person elected to fill the vacancy of the President holds office for
(a) The Unexpired term
(b) For full term of five years.
(c) The period determined by the parliament.
(d) A term determined by the member of Parliament and State Legislature.

Question. Which one of the following writs is issued by the court in case of an illegal detention of a person?
(a) Habeas Corpus.
(b) Mandamus.
(c) Certiorari.
(d) Quo Warranto.

Question. Which one of the following writs is issued to courts, corporation or a person directing them to perform their public duty?
(a) Habeas Corpus.
(b) Quo Warranto.
(c) Mandamus.
(d) Prohibition.

Question. The president can vacate his office by addressing his resignation to
(a) The Vice-President.
(b) The speaker of Lok-Sabha.
(c) The Prime minister.
(d) The Chief Justice of India.

Question. The disputes regarding the election of the President are decided by
(a) The Supreme Court of India.
(b) The Parliament.
(c) The Lok-Sabha.
(d) The election Commissioner.

Question. A member of parliament or a State Legislature can be elected as President but
(a) He has to resign his seat before contesting election.
(b) He has to relinquish his seat as soon as he is elected.
(c) He has to relinquish his seat within six months of his election.
(d) A member of parliament can contest but a Member of State Legislature cannot contest.

Question. In the election of the president
(a) The member of the State Legislative assemblies enjoy more votes.
(b) The member of parliament enjoy more votes.
(c) The member of State Legislative Assemblies and two Houses Parliament enjoy equal number of votes.
(d) None of the above.

Question. The Salary of the President is
(a) Liable to Income Tax.
(b) Not subject to income tax.
(c) Subject to special rate of Income tax.
(d) None of the above.

Question. The President of India can be removed from his office before the expiry office team by
(a) The Chief Justice of India.
(b) The Parliament and State Legislatures jointly.
(c) The two houses of Parliament.
(d) The Supreme Court of India.

Question. The formation of the council of ministers starts with
(a) The ordering of the General election of Parliament.
(b) The appointment of the Prime Minister.
(c) The appointment of the President.
(d) The formal notification of the President.

Question. The Prime Minister who is the head of the council of ministers
(a) Cannot be a member of either House of Parliament.
(b) Must be a Member of either House of parliament.
(c) Must be Leader of the Rajya Sabha.
(d) Must be leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.

Question. The President can be removed from his office only on grounds of
(a) Violating the Constitution .
(b) Showing favours to his party members.
(c) Accepting bribe.
(d) Disobedience of the Parliament.

Question. Which one the following statement is incorrect?
(a) The President is an integral part of the Parliament.
(b) The President is not a part of the Parliament.
(c) The President can summon each House of Parliament.
(d) The President can dissolve the Lok-Sabha.

Question. The President nominates the member of the Rajya-Sabha from amongst persons who
(a) Have taken part in India’s freedom struggle.
(b) Have retired from active politics.
(c) Have rendered meritorious services to the country either in politics or military field.
(d) Have distinguished themselves in fine arts, literature, social service, etc.

Question. Which one if the following financial powers of the President of India has been wrongly listed?
(a) No money bill can be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendations of the President.
(b) The Contingency Fund of India has been placed at the disposal of the President and he can make advances out of it to meet unforeseen expenditure .
(c) Every Five- year the President appoints a Finance Commission for division of taxes between the union and the states.
(d) During emergency the President can raise extra funds without the consent of the Parliament.

Question. In reality the council of ministers stay in office as long as it enjoys
(a) The confidents of Lok Sabha.
(b) The confidents of the Prime Minister.
(c) The confidents of the President.
(d) The confidents of the Rajya Sabha.

Question. A person can be appointed a member of the council of ministers
(a) Only if he is not a member of either House4 of parliament.
(b) Only if he is a member of either house of Parliament.
(c) Only if the President recommends his appointment to the Prime minister.
(d) None of the above.

Question. Which one of the following types of emergency can be declared by the President?
(a) Emergency due to threat of war, external aggression or internal disturbances.
(b) Emergency due to break-down of constitution machinery in a state .
(c) Financial emergency on account of threat to the financial credit of India.
(d) All the three emergencies.

Question. The President can declare National Emergency :
(a) Only in case of foreign attack.
(b) Only in case of armed rebellion.
(c) If he is satisfied that a great threat exists to the security of country either due to war or external aggression or armed rebellion.
(d) None of the above.

Question. Which of the following changes is not effected during the national emergency?
(a) The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens can be suspended.
(b) The distribution of revenue between the Union and State can be modified.
(c) The President can issue directions to the State with regard to exercise of there executive powers.
(d) The President can act in his distraction the advice of the council of ministers.

Question. The allocation of portfolios to the various members of the Council of Ministers is done:
(a) According to the discretion of the President.
(b) According to the discretion of the Prime Minister.
(c) Through draw of lots.
(d) On the basis of preferences indicated by the ministers.

Question. A member of Council of Ministers:
(a) Can be dismissed by the President in his discretion .
(b) Can be dismissed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
(c) Can be dismissed by the President after obtaining necessary opinion from the Supreme Court of India .
(d) Cannot be dismissed by the President.

Question. Which one of the following steps cannot be taken by the president during the Financial Emergency?
(a) He can direct the Union and State Governments to observe such canons of financial property as he deems desirable.
(b) He can suspend the fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens.
(c) He can order the reduction of the salaries and allowances of all civil servants.
(d) He can order the reduction of the salaries of the Supreme Court and High Court judges.

Question. Which one of the following category of emergency has been declared maximum number of times?
(a) National Emergency.
(b) Emergency due to breakdown of constitutional machinery of states.
(c) Financial emergency.
(d) All the three equal number of times.

Question. The President of India enjoys the right to veto
(a) Both money and non- money bills.
(b) Only money – bills.
(c) Only non- money bills.
(d) None of the two types of bill.

Question. During the recess of the Parliament the President can promulgate ordinances
(a) With the prior approval of the Parliament.
(b) With the prior approval of the Supreme Court of India.
(c) With the consent of the Council of Ministers.
(d) On his own.

Question. Which one of the following categories of emergency has not been declared so far?
(a) National emergency.
(b) Emergency due to breakdown of constitutional machinery.
(c) Financial emergency.
(d) None of the above .

Question. The Vice-President of India holds office:
(a) During the Pleasure of the President .
(b) For a term of four years.
(c) For a term of five years.
(d) For a term which is decided at the time of his appointment by the Parliament.

Question. Which one of the following powers of the President of India has been wrongly listed?
(a) He is the Supreme Commander of the armed force of India .
(b) He makes are the major executive appointments of the Union Government.
(c) He can declare war and make peace .
(d) He Presents the budget before the Parliament for its approval.

Question. Under the Constitution it is
(a) Obligatory for the President to seek the advice of the Council of Ministers but is not obligated to follow it.
(b) It is obligatory for the President to accept the advice of the Council of Ministers.
(c) It is not obligatory for the President to seek or accept the advice of the Council of Ministers.
(d) It is obligatory for the President to seek the advice of the Council of Ministers if his own party is in power.

Question. The Vice- President of India can be removed from the office before the expiry of his term if:
(a) The RajyaSabha passes resolution by a majority of its members and the LokSabha agrees with the resolution.
(b) If the Supreme Court of India recommend his removal.
(c) The President so desires.
(d) None of the above.

Question. With regard to the re-election of the Vice- President:
(a) The constitution is absolutely silent .
(b) The constitution places a clear ban.
(c) The constitution permits re-election only once.
(d) The constitution permits maximum of three terms.

Question. Which one of the following powers of the Prime minister in relation to the council of ministers has been wrongly listed?
(a) The member of the council of ministers are appointed by the President on the recommendation of Prime minister.
(b) He allocates portfolios among the members of the council Ministers.
(c) He presides over the meetings of the council of ministers .
(d) He can dismiss the council of ministers if he finds that the members are not cooperating with him.

Question. The agenda for the meeting of the council of ministers is declared by
(a) The Prime Minister .
(b) A small committee of the council of ministers formed for this purpose.
(c) All the members of the council at a formal meeting.
(d) The Prime Minister in consultation with the President.

Question. Which one of the following function,of the Vice-President as ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha has been wrongly listed?
(a) He presides over the meeting of the Rajya Sabha contacts its business.
(b) He protects the privileges of the members of RajyaSabha.
(c) He can dissolve the Rajya Sabha.
(d) He acts as the spokesman of Rajya Sabha before the President and the LokSabha.

Question. In India the real executive authority rests with
(a) President.
(b) The Prime minister.
(c) The council of ministers.
(d) The civil servants.

Question. The council of ministers consist of
(a) The Prime Minister, The President, The Vice President and other ministers.
(b) The Prime minister, The President and other Minister.
(c) The Prime Minister and other Ministers.
(d) None of the above.

Question. The appointments of the members of the council of ministers is made by the President
(a) On the advice of the Prime Minister.
(b) In his own discretion .
(c) On the advice of the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
(d) On the advice of the Prime Minister and the speaker of LokSabha.

Question. Generally all important decisions are taken by
(a) The council of ministers .
(b) The Cabinet.
(c) The council ministers and Cabinet at a joint sitting.
(d) The Prime minister.

Question. Which one of the following categories of ministers are members of cabinet?
(a) Ministers with cabinet rank.
(b) Ministers of state.
(c) Deputy ministers.
(d) All the above categories of ministers.

Question. The Prime Minister says in office as long as
(a) He is in the good books of the President.
(b) His party enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
(c) His party enjoys the confidence of the both the Houses of parliament.
(d) For a fixed term of 5 years.

Question. According to the constitution the Lok Sabha must meet at least
(a) Thrice each year with no more than two months between sessions.
(b) Twice each year with no more than three months between sessions.
(c) Twice each year with no more than four months between sessions.
(d) Twice each year with no more than six months between sessions.

Question. Constitutionally the member of the council of ministers hold office
(a) During the pleasure of the President.
(b) During the pleasure of the Speaker.
(c) During the pleasure of the Parliament.
(d) During the pleasure of the Prime Minister.

Question. A person who is not a member of parliament can be appoints a member of the council of the minister but he must acquire the membership of either House within a period of
(a) Six months.
(b) One year.
(c) Three Months.
(d) Three years.

Question. According to the Constitution of India, new All India Service can be instituted by the initiative taken by
(a) More than two thirds of the States.
(b) Interstate council.
(c ) The lok Sabha.
(d) The Rajya Sabha.

Question. Which of the following parliamentary Committees in India acts a ‘watch-dog’on departmental expenditures and irregularities
(a) Estimates Committee.
(b) Committee on Public Undertakings.
(c) Public Accounts Committee.
(d) Committee on Public Assurances.

Question. The council of ministers can be removed from office
(a) By the President at his discretion .
(b) By the Rajya Sabha if it passes a resolution to this effect.
(c) By the Lok Sabha if it passes a vote of no confidents against it .
(d) By the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha jointly by passing a vote no confidents against it.

Question. Which one of the following executive functions of the council of ministers has been wrongly listed?
(a) It formulates the executive policy of the country.
(b) It coordinates the policies programmes and activities of the various departments.
(c) It plays an important role in filling up various political, judicial and ambassadorial assignments .
(d) It plays an important role in the election of the President.

Question. While the Vice-President discharges the functions of the office of the President
(a) He ceases to act in his capacity as the chairman of Rajya Sabha.
(b) He ceases to act in his capacity as the Vice President of India.
(c) He continues to act as the Vice President of India and Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
(d) He ceases to act as Vice President but continues to act as Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

Question. On the death of the President the Vice President Succeeds him as President for
(a) The un-expired term
(b) A maximum period of six months.
(c) A maximum period of one year.
(d) Maximum period of three years.

Question. The Legislative Function of the Council of Ministers include
(a) The right to summon and prorogue the two houses of parliament.
(b) Right of nominate two Anglo-Indian members of Lok Sabha.
(c) Right to nominate some members of Rajya Sabha.
(d) Right to introduce important bills and resolutions in the Parliament.

Question. The President of India
(a) Has no right to address either House of Parliament.
(b) Has the right to address only the Lok-Sabha.
(c) Has the right to Address only the Rajya-Sabha.
(d) Has the right to address both the House of Parliament either separately or jointly.

Question. The code of conduct which the candidates are expected to follow during the election is
(a) Formulated by the Election Commission and is legally enforceable.
(b) Formulated by the leaders of National political Parties and enforced by the Election Commission.
(c) Formulated by the Election Commission in consultation with political parties and is not legally enforceable.
(d) Formulated by the Election Commission and approved by the Parliament.

Question. The financial functions of the Council of ministers include the right:
(a) To clarify whether a bill is a money bill or not.
(b) To prepare and introduce the budget in the Parliament.
(c) To control expenditure out of the Contingency Fund of India.
(d) To appoint Finance Commission from time to time.

Question. Which one of the following Judicial powers of the President of India has been wrongly listed?
(a) He appoints the Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court.
(b) He can removed the judges of the Supreme Court on grounds of misconduct.
(c) He can consult the Supreme Court on any questions of law of fact which is of public importance.
(d) He can grant pardon, reprieves and respites to persons punished under union Law.

Question. Who said that the emergency powers of the President is a fraud on the Constitution?
(a) K.M Nambiar.
(b) K.M Munshi.
(c) B.N Rau.
(d) B.R Ambedkar.

Question. As regards the powers of the Council of Ministers with regard to the foreign relations:
(a) It receives the ambassadors and diplomats from foreign countries.
(b) It determines the foreign policy of the country.
(c) It helps in the recruitment of members of Indian foreign Service.
(d) It concludes treaties and agreements with foreign countries.

Question. Generally the members of the Council of Ministers are:
(a) Taken from the same political party.
(b) Taken from the various political parties according to their strength in the Parliament.
(c) Taken from amongst persons who are not members of Parliament.
(d) Taken from amongst persons with long administrative experience.

Question. The Council of the Ministers
(a) Cannot recommend the dissolution of Lok Sabha to the President.
(b) Can recommend dissolution of Lok Sabha to the President.
(c) Can recommend dissolution of Lok Sabha only after obtaining necessary clearance from the supreme Court of India.
(d) Can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to president only if all the political parties have consented to this proposal.

Question. The Prime Minister is
(a) Appointed by the President.
(b) Elected by the Lok Sabha.
(c) Elected by the both the Houses of parliament at a joint sitting.
(d) Elected by an electoral collage containing representative of parliament and state legislatures.

Question. Which one of the following powers of the Prime Minister in relation to the President has been wrongly listed?
(a) He communicates all the decision of the council of ministers to the President.
(b) He supplies such information to the President regarding proposals of legislature and administration of the union as the President may need.
(c) He signs the bills passed by the two Houses of the Parliament on behalf of the President during his absence .
(d) He assists the President in making in appointments.

Question. The President can declare emergency on ground of breakdown of constitutional machinery in the States
(a) Only on the receipt of report from the Governor of the State to this effect .
(b) Even without receipt of a report from the Governor if he is satisfied that situation has arisen in which the government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution.
(c) If the Council of Ministers of the States recommends to the President.
(d) If the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly recommends to the President.

Question. Which one of the following changes cannot be effected during the emergency due to constitutional breakdown of the State machinery?
(a) The president can assume to himself all or any of the function of the government of the State .
(b) The president can assume the power the High Court of State.
(c) The President can declare that the powers of the legislature of the State shall be exercised by the Parliament .
(d) The President can suspend the operation of any provision of the constitution relating to the body or authority in the State if he feels it desirable to do so for attaining the objectives of the emergency.

Question. The Government in India is known as Parliamentary because
(a) Parliament is elected by the people.
(b) Parliament consist of two Houses.
(c) Parliament is a sovereigns body.
(d) The executive is accountable to the legislature .

Question. Parliamentary Government was adopted in India
(a) By sheer accident .
(b) Because it was made obligatory in adopt this Government under Indian Independence act of 1947.
(c) Because of historical consideration and practical necessities.
(d) On account of all the above reasons.

Question. The constitution provided Parliamentary Governments
(a) Only at the Centre .
(b) Both at the centre as well as States.
(c) Only at the centre but permitted it to introduce the same at the State level.
(d) None of the above.

Question. In the federation established by the Act of 1935 , residuary powers were given to the
(a) Federal Legislature.
(b) Provincial Legislature.
(c) Governor general.
(d) Provincial Governors.

Question. Generally the Prime Minister is
(a) Not a Member of either House of parliament.
(b) The leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
(c) Leader of the majority party in both the house of parliament.
(d) A trusted front of the President.

Question. What is the sanction behind the Fundamental Rights granted by the Indian Constitution?
(a) Public opinion.
(b) Parliament.
(c) Independent judiciary.
(d) The Constitution.

Question. The main purpose for the grant of Fundamental Rights to the Indian citizens is :
(a) Establishment of democratic government.
(b) Protection of individual liberty .
(c) To ensure independence of judiciary.
(d) To establish socialist society.

Question. If the land belonging to a poor man is appropriated by the government without compensation, he cannot directly approach the High Court for redress because the
(a) Cost involved are exorbitant.
(b) Right to property is a legal right.
(c) Court have been deprived of the power to determine compensation.
(d) Matter is outside their jurisdiction.

Question. A proclamation of emergency must be placed before the Parliament for its approval:
(a) Within one month.
(b) Within two months.
(c) Within six months.
(d) Within one year.

Question. With the approval of Parliament the National Emergency can continue for:
(a) A maximum period of three years
(b) A maximum period of one year
(c) An indefinite period.
(d) A maximum period of one year.

Question. The Constitution of which one of the following countries specifically recognises that the State has a moral responsibility to provide employment to its citizens?
(a) Great Britain.
(b) India.
(c) U.S.S.R.
(d) U.S.A.

Question. The President of India is :
(a) The real ruler of India.
(b) The Constitutional head of the State.
(c) The head of the state as well as government .
(d) The leader of the majority party which forms the government.

Question. The President of India is :
(a) Appointed by the Prime Minister.
(b) Elected by the Parliament .
(c) Elected by the Chief Minister of the States.
(d) Elected by an electoral college consisting of Members of Parliament and State legislatures.

Question. The strength of the council of ministers
(a) Has been fixed by the constitution.
(b) Has been fixed by the parliament under peoples representation Act 1950.
(c) Is determined by the Prime minister keeping in view the requirements of the time.
(d) Is determined by the President.

Question. The council of ministers is
(a) Identical with the Cabinet.
(b) A smaller body than the Cabinet.
(c) A larger body than the Cabinet.
(d) In no way related to the Cabinet.