Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper Term 1 With Solutions Set E

Sample Papers for Class 10

Please refer to Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper Term 1 With Solutions Set E provided below. The Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science have been prepared based on the latest pattern issued by CBSE. Students should practice these guess papers for class 10 social science to gain more practice and get better marks in examinations. The Term 1 Sample Papers for Social Science Standard 10 will help you to understand the type of questions which can be asked in upcoming examinations.

Term 1 Sample Paper for Class 10 Social Science With Solutions Set E

SECTION-A

1. Which of the following painters painted the painting,Germania guarding the Rhine?
(a) Lorenz Clasen
(b) Jacques-Louis David
(c) Pierre Narcisse Guérin
(d) Théodore Rousseau

Answer

A

2. Which of the following is the symbol strength of the German Empire?
(a) Sword
(b) Rays of rising sun
(c) Breastplate with eagle
(d) Broken chains

Answer

C

3. Which of the following materials was used for thepainting of Germania?
(a) Cotton
(b) Silk
(c) Woollen
(d) Jute

Answer

A

4. Which of the following years does have the figure of Marianne on the postage stamps?
(a) 1750
(b) 1850
(c) 1855
(d) 1889

Answer

B

5. Which of the following is shown by a blindfolded woman carrying a pair of weighing scales?
(a) Liberty
(b) Justice
(c) Equality
(d) Truth

Answer

B

6. Which of the following do have the images of Marianne?
(a) Coins
(b) Flags
(c) Books
(d) Streets

Answer

A

7. Which of the following is the name of the British flag?
(a) Bundesflagge
(b) Union Jack
(c) Rise of an Era
(d) Unified nation

Answer

B

8. Which of the following places did the artist portray Garibaldi?
(a) Base of the boot
(b) Top of the hat
(c) On the collar of a shirt
(d) On a cloak

Answer

A

9. Which of the following is themost celebrated Italian freedom fighters?
(a) Luigi Cadorna
(b) Giovanni Messe
(c) Pietro Badoglio
(d) Giuseppe Garibaldi

Answer

D

10. What kind of resources are rocks and metals?
(a) Biotic
(b) Abiotic
(c) Recyclable
(d) Biological

Answer

B

11. Which of the following books was written by Schumacher?
(a) Small is beautiful
(b) Our common future
(c) The wealth of Nations
(d) The big short

Answer

A

12. GCA stands for:
(a) Crosscut area
(b) Gross cropped area
(c) Global cultivation area
(d) Global consumed area

Answer

B

13. How much percentage of the total area is covered by a plateau in India?
(a) 43%
(b) 30%
(c) 27%
(d) 23%

Answer

C

14. Which of the following kinds of resources are plains, mountains and plateaus?
(a) Land resources
(b) Irrigation resources
(c) Public resources
(d) Private resources

Answer

A

15. Which of the following is the cold desert in India?
(a) Ladakh
(b) Srinagar
(c) Sikkim
(d) Spiti valley

Answer

A

16. Which of the following states is the sole producer of lead and zinc ores, calcite, selenite and wollastonite?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Bihar

Answer

C

17. Which of the following layers does have biotic resources?
(a) Biosphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Atmosphere
(d) Mesosphere

Answer

A

18. Potential and developed stocks are classified on the basis of the status of _____________.
(a) Origin
(b) Development
(c) Exhaustibility
(d) Ownership

Answer

B

19. Which of the following natural factors is not required for the growth of the cotton plant?
(a) Sunshine
(b) Rainfall
(c) Wind
(d) Climate

Answer

C

20. Which of the following shows the least amount of contribution of GDP of a country in 1973–34?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Service

Answer

B

21. Which of the following percentage is the share of the employment in the primary sector in 2017–18?
(a) 35
(b) 44
(c) 18
(d) 11

Answer

B

22. How many days are required for the growth of cotton?
(a) 150 days
(b) 200 days
(c) 210 days
(d) 280 days

Answer

B

23. Which of the following is associated with ‘Operation flood’?
(a) Green Revolution
(b) White Revolution
(c) French Revolution
(d) American Revolution

Answer

B

24. Which of the following is the utilization of net sown areas?
(a) Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus the net sown area is known as gross cropped area.
(b) Land put to non-agricultural uses, e.g. buildings, roads, factories, etc.
(c) Current fallow-(left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year),
(d) Cultivable wasteland (left uncultivated for more than 5 agricultural years).

Answer

A

SECTION-B

25. Which of the followingcommunities isfound in the majority of Sri Lanka?
(a) Sinhala community
(b) Indian Tamils community
(c) Sri Lankan Tamils community
(d) Dutch community

Answer

A

26. Which of the following has the minimum percentage of land use in 1960-61?
(a) Barren and unculturable land
(b) The area under misc. tree crops and groves
(c) Net sown area
(d) Permanent pasture and grazing land

Answer

B

27. Assertion (A): Red soils develop a reddish colour.
Reason (R): Due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) If A is true but R is false.
(d) If A is false but R is true.

Answer

A

28. In which of the following languages does the word ‘brick’ mean ‘later?
(a) American
(b) Latin
(c) Arabic
(d) Greek

Answer

B

29. Which of the following soils are sandy and saline?
(a) Laterite
(b) Arid
(c) Yellow
(d) Black

Answer

B

30. Which of the following states is not suitable for the cultivation of cashew nuts?
(a) Kerala
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Karnataka

Answer

D

31. After proper irrigation __________ soils become cultivable as has been in the case of western Rajasthan.
(a) Arid
(b) Black
(c) Yellow
(d) Laterite

Answer

A

32. What is the full form of GER?
(a) Gross Enforcement Ratio
(b) Gross Enrolment Ratio
(c) Grand Enrolment Ratio
(d) Gross Enrolment Rate

Answer

A

33. Which of the following is not a developmental goal for landless rural labourers?
(a) Local school is able to provide quality education for their children.
(b) They too can become leaders in the village.
(c) More days of work and better wages
(d) Assured a high family income through higher support prices for their crops

Answer

D

34. Which of the following countries is smaller in area than Haryana?
(a) Belgium
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Germany
(d) Russia

Answer

A

35. How much percentage of the total population resides in the Flemish region of Belgium?
(a) 55 %
(b) 59%
(c) 60%
(d) 70%

Answer

B

36. Assertion (A): The key changes were made in the Constitution of Belgium.
Reason (R): To reduce the power of the Central Government and to give these powers to the regional governments
(a) Both, A and R, are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both, A and R, are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) If A is true but R is false.
(d) If A is false but R is true.

Answer

A

37. Which of the following countries does not have afederal political system?
(a) Russia
(b) Argentina
(c) Brazil
(d) China

Answer

D

38. Which of the following is not the objective of the federal system?
(a) To safeguard and promote the unity of the country
(b) To accommodate regional diversity
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

Answer

C

39. The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the ___________.
(a) Balkans
(b) Slaves
(c) Salves
(d) Utopian

Answer

A

40. Which of the following is the goal of statues of Marianne?
(a) To remind the public of the national symbol of
(b) To persuade them to identify with it
(c) Both of the above
(d) None of the above

Answer

C

41. Which of the following are the correct statements about the representation of a female figure?
(i) The female form that was chosen to personify the nation did not stand for any particular woman in real life.
(ii) It sought to give the abstract idea of the nation a concrete form.
(iii) It became an allegory of the nation.
(a) (i) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer

D

42. He came from a family engaged in coastal trade and was a sailor in the merchant navy.
In 1833 he met Mazzini, joined the Young Italy movement and participated in a republican uprising in Piedmont in 1834.
He supported Victor Emmanuel II in his efforts to unify the Italian states.
Who is he?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(b) Frédéric Sorrieu
(c) Ernst Renan
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder

Answer

A

43. Which of the following is the correct statement?
(i) Chief Minister Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy was neither a revolutionary nor a democrat.
(ii) Chief Minister Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy was both a revolutionary and a democrat.
(iii) Chief Minister Cavour who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy was either a revolutionary or a democrat.
(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer

A

44. During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into ________states.
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8

Answer

C

45. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the given events?
1. Unification of Italy
2. Slav nationalism gathers force in the Habsburg and Ottoman Empires.
3. Greek struggle for independence begins.
4. The Vienna Peace Settlement
(a) 3-4-1-2
(b) 4-3-2-1
(c) 1-3-1-4
(d) 4-3-1-2

Answer

D

46. Imagine what would happen if farmers refuse to sell sugarcane to a particular sugar mill. The mill will have to shut down.
Which of the following sectors is shown in the given situation?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Service

Answer

B

SECTION-C
PASSAGE-1

The secondary sector covers activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing that we associate with industrial activity. It is the next step after the primary. The product is not produced by nature but has to be made and therefore some process of manufacturing is essential. This could be in a factory, a workshop or at home. For example, using cotton fibre from the plant, we spin yarn and weave cloth. Using sugarcane as raw material, we make sugar or gur. We convert the earth into bricks and use bricks to make houses and buildings. Since this sector gradually became associated with the different kinds of industries that came up, it is also called as industrial sector. After primary and secondary, there is a third category of activities that falls under the tertiary sector and is different from the above two. These are activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors. These activities, by themselves, do not produce good but they are an aid or support for the production process. For example, goods that are produced in the primary or secondary sector would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in wholesale and retail shops. At times, it may be necessary to store these in godowns. We also may need to talk to others over the telephone or send letters (communication) or borrow money from banks (banking) to help production and trade. Transport, storage, communication, banking, trade are some examples of tertiary activities. Since these activities generate services rather than goods, the tertiary sector is also called the service sector.

The service sector also includes some essential services that may not directly help in the production of goods. For example, we require teachers, doctors, and those who provide personal services such as washermen, barbers, cobblers, lawyers, and people to do administrative and accounting works. In recent times, certain new services based on information technology such as internet cafes, ATM booths, call centres, software companies, etc. have become important.

47. Since the secondary sector gradually became associated with the different kinds of industries that came up, it is also called as _________ sector.
(a) Industrial
(b) Tertiary
(c) Primary
(d) Infrastructural

Answer

A

48. Which of the following get converted into other forms in the secondary sector?
(a) Natural products
(b) Man-made products
(c) Convenience Products
(d) Niche products

Answer

A

49. Which of the following is an example of a secondary sector?
(a) Fishing
(b) Making sugar using sugarcane
(c) Agriculture
(d) Mining

Answer

B

50. Which of the following are the correct statements about the tertiary sector?
(i) These are activities that help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors.
(ii) These activities, by themselves, do not produce a good but they are an aid or support for the production process.
(iii) These activities generate services rather than goods, the tertiary sector is also called the service sector.
(a) (i)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer

D

51. Which of the following is not an example of the service sector that may not directly help in the production of goods?
(a) Washermen
(b) Lawyers
(c) Barbers
(d) Dairy

Answer

D

52. Which of the following is not a tertiary activity?
(a) Communication
(b) Banking
(c) Trade
(d) Making Steel

Answer

D

PASSAGE-2

Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country in 1948. The leaders of the Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over the government under their majority. As a result, the democratically elected government adopted a series of MAJORITARIAN measures to establish Sinhala supremacy. In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language, thus disregarding Tamil. The governments followed preferential policies that favoured Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs. A new constitution stipulated that the state shall protect and foster Buddhism. All these government measures, coming one after the other, gradually increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. They felt that none of the major political parties led by the Buddhist Sinhala leaders was sensitive to their language and culture. They felt that the constitution and government policies denied them equal political rights, discriminated against them in getting jobs and other opportunities and ignored their interests.

53. When did Sri Lanka become an independent country?
(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1949
(d) 1950

Answer

B

54. Which of the following is the result of a series of majoritarian measures?
(a) Rise of a feeling of alienation
(b) Discrimination between Sinhala and Tamils
(c) Sinhala supremacy
(d) Abolishment of the Constitution

Answer

C

55. Which of the following was declared as an official language in 1956?
(a) Sinhala
(b) Hindi
(c) Tamil
(d) Arabic

Answer

A

56. Which of the following religions has prevailed in Sri Lanka?
(a) Jainism
(b) Buddhism
(c) Hinduism
(d) Islam

Answer

B

57. Which of the following groups felt alienated?
(a) Sri Lankan Tamils
(b) Indian Tamils
(c) Dutch
(d) Sinhala speaking people

Answer

A

58. Which of the following notions were not made by Sri Lankan Tamils?
(a) Government policies denied them equal political rights
(b) Discriminated against them in getting jobs
(c) Ignored their interests
(d) New policies came into existence benefiting them

Answer

D

59. Which of the following soil is found in the area that is marked A?
(a) Alluvial
(b) Red and Yellow
(c) Black
(d) Arid

Answer

A

60. Which of the following UT/States is not marked B on the given map covering the forest areas?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer

D