Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper Term 1 With Solutions Set D

Please refer to Class 10 Social Science Sample Paper Term 1 With Solutions Set D provided below. The Sample Papers for Class 10 Social Science have been prepared based on the latest pattern issued by CBSE. Students should practice these guess papers for class 10 social science to gain more practice and get better marks in examinations. The Term 1 Sample Papers for Social Science Standard 10 will help you to understand the type of questions which can be asked in upcoming examinations.

Term 1 Sample Paper for Class 10 Social Science With Solutions Set D

SECTION-A
(Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions)

1. Who among the following had prepared a series of four prints called ‘The Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social Republic’?       
(a) Giuesppe Garibaldi
(b) Frederic Sorrieu
(c) Count Cavour
(d) Andreas Rebmann

2. The cover of a German almanac designed by whom among the following journalists?     
(a) Andreas Rebmann
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Karl Kaspar Fritz
(d) Giacomo Mantegazza

3. Identify the correct statement with regard to the French revolutionaries from the following options. 
(a) They introduced various measures and practices that could create a sense of collective identify.
(b) The ideas of la patrie and le citoyen.
(c) A new French flag was chosen to replace the former royal standard
(d) All of the above statements

4. In which of the following cities the French armies were initially welcomed?         
(a) Brussels
(b) Mainz
(c) Switzerland
(d) Only A and B

5. Identify the year in which Napoleon invaded Italy and Napoleonic wars were begun?       
(a) 1758
(b) 1797
(c) 1799
(d) 1801

6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and their categories or names from the following options:       
(a) Golden fibre – Jute
(b) Fibre crop – rubber
(c) Food crop – Cotton
(d) Non-food crop – Silk

7. Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised is called ___________ .       
(a) Developed Resources
(b) Stock Resources
(c) Potential Resources
(d) Reserve Resources

8. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?     
(a) Intensive cultivation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Over irrigation
(d) Overgrazing

9. Which of the following rivers have been deposited the alluvial soil in the northern plains of India?     
(a) Indus, Ganga and Narmada
(b) Indus, Ganga and Brahmaputra
(c) Ganga, Brahmaputra and Godavari
(d) Ganga, Mahanadi and Krishna

10. Which of the following crops is grown once a year?     
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Cotton
(c) Rice
(d) Pulses

11. In which of the following countries the majority community could impose its will on the entire country?         
(a) Belgium
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Pakistan
(d) Nepal

12. Identify the significant reason for adopted a majoritarianism Constitution in Sri Lanka?       
(a) The Sinhala community sought to secure dominance over government by virtue of their majority.
(b) Most of the population in Sri Lanka wanted to dominance over government.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) The Sinhala community wanted to supress the Tamils.

13. When the power is shared among governments at different levels it is called–       
(a) Horizontal Government
(b) Fedral Government
(c) Unitary Government
(d) Democratic Government

14. Which of the following countries is an example of ‘holding together’ federations?     
(a) USA
(b) Belgium
(c) Australia
(d) Switzerland

15. In which of the following forms of government, the citizens must have freedom to choose  among various contenders for power?     
(a) Democratic Government
(b) Republic Government
(c) Dictatorial Government
(d) Majoritarian Government

16. Which of the following plays an important role in overseeing the implementation of constitutional provisions and procedures?         
(a) Legislative
(b) Judiciary
(c) Executive
(d) Only (a) and (c)

17. Which of the following years witnessed the rise of regional political parties in many states  of India?     
(a) 1989
(b) 1985
(c) 1990
(d) 1992

18. Which of the following sectors generates services rather than goods?     
(a) Primary Sector
(b) Secondary Sector
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Service sector

19. If the BMI of a boy aged 15 years and 6 month is 28, then he is       
(a) Malnutrition
(b) Average weight
(c) Overweight
(d) Underweight

20. Which of the following measures the proprotion of literate population in the 7 and above age group?     
(a) Net Education Ratio
(b) Literacy Rate
(c) Infant Education Rate
(d) All India Literacy Rate

21. Which of the following is not an important goal of people’s life?       
(a) Good education
(b) Blood donation
(c) High salaried job
(d) Facilities for going abroad

22. Development is possible without the overuse of resources. In this context choose the correct option which describes the importance of sustainable development.       
(a) It helps in maintaining ecological balance.
(b) It promotes an efficient use of natural resources.
(c) It lays emphasis on quality of life.
(d) All of the above

23. In which of the following sectors where the terms of employment are regular and, therefore, people have assured work?     
(a) Service sector
(b) Government sector
(c) Unorganised sector
(d) Organised sector

24. The Infant Mortality Rate of Odisha or ………………… is higher than some of the poorest regions of the world.
Choose the correct option:       
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Chhattisgarh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Bihar

SECTION-B
(Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions)

25. Following image is a personality who along with other officials gathered on 18 January 1871 in the Hall of Mirrors. Which of the options best embarks this caricature? 

   

Options:
(a) Napoleon in the French Paraliament
(b) Otto van Bismark in the German Reichstag (Parliament)
(c) Victor Emmanuel II in the Prussian Parliament
(d) Kaiser William II in the German Reichstag (Parliament)

26. Which of the following option (s) is/are correct about the nation-building process in Germany?       
I. The Prussian king Willian I was proclaimed German Emperor.
II. The new state placed a strong emphasis on modernising the currency, banking, legal
and and judicial systems in Germany.
III. Prussian measures and practices often became a model for the rest of Germany.
Options:
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) Only II
(d) I, II and III

27. Why did the female figure become an allegory of the nation? Identify the appropriate reason from the following options.       
(a) The female did not stand for any particular woman in real life.
(b) The female sought to give the abstract idea of the nation a concrete form.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) The female represented the ideas such as Liberty, ‘Justice and the Republic.

28. Identify the major aspect that incorporated Ireland into United Kingdom.       
(a) Catholic revolts against British dominance were suppressed.
(b) The revolt led by wolfe Tone and his United Kingdom was forcibly supressed.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) The British declared war against Ireland.

29. Identify the soils with help of clues given below.       
• They are generally sandy in texture and saline in nature.
• The lower horizons of the soil are occupied by Kankar.
• After proper irrigation these soils become cultivable.
(a) Laterite soils
(b) Forest soils
(c) Arid soils
(d) Black soils

30. Which of the following categories of resources can we put pasture lands in?       
(a) Reserve Resources
(b) Community-owned resources
(c) Individual resources
(d) National Resources

31. Consider the following statements on accommodation in Belgium and select the answer using the codes given below.       
I. The Constitution prescribes that the number of Dutch and French speaking ministers
shall be equal in the central government.
II. No single community can make decisions unilaterally.
III. The state governments are not subordinate to the central government.
IV. The government followed preferential policies towards Dutch people.
Options:
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) II, III and IV

32. How does union government supervise over state government?       
(a) The Governor is the representative of union government in the state.
(b) If any laws conflict over State list, the law mode by the union government will prevail.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

33. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.     
Assertion (A): Power sharing is good.
Reason (R): Power sharing helps to reduce the possiblity of conflicts between different social groups.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

34. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B. 

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) I-4, II-3, III-1, IV-2
(b) I-3, II-1, III-4, IV-2
(c) I-2, II-3, III-1, IV-4
(d) I-1, II-2, III-3, IV-4

35. Many old states have been created between 1947 and 2019. Some states were created to recognise differences based on culture, ethnicity or geography. On this basis, which of the following states carve(s) out? Select the appropriate option.   
(a) Nagaland
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Uttarakhand
(d) All of these

36. Identify the local government bodies with the help of the following information.     
• At least one-third of all positions are reserved for women.
• An independent institution called the State Election Commission has been created for conducting elections to these bodies.
• The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with these bodies.
Select the appropriate option from the following.
(a) Panchayati Raj centres
(b) Municiplaities
(c) Municipal Corporations
(d) All of these

37. Identify the correct statements(s) about the language policy of the government.       
I. The Constitution of India did not give the status of national language.
II. Beside Hindi, these are 20 other language recognised as scheduled language.
III. The Government of India continues the use of English along with Hindi for official
purposes.
IV. Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of India.
Options:
(a) I, III and IV
(b) I, II and III
(c) II, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV

38. Identify the correct statement(s) about the key feature(s) of federalism.     
I. There are two or more levels or tiers of government.
II. The jurisdictions of the respective levels of government are specified in the constitution.
III. Courts have the power to interpret the constitution.
IV. Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own
jurisdiction.
(a) I and II
(b) I, II and III
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II, III and IV

39. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.     
Assertion (A): A high average income is not indicative of the overall well-being or human development in a country.
Reason (R): Average income does not cover indicators like level of literacy rate, health facilities and public facilities in a country.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

40. Choose the correct option from the following:         
List I (Example) List II (Sectors)
(a) Washerman Service sector
(b) Forestry Tertiary sector
(c) Banking Secondary sector
(d) Manufactured goods Tertiary sector

41. Read the following data and information carefully and select the most appropriate answer from the given options. 

A study in Ahmedabad found that out of 15,00,000 workers in the city, 11,00,000 worked in the unorganised sector. The total income of the city in this year (1997-1998) was ` 60,000
million. Out of this, ` 32,000 million was generated in the organised sector.
Identify what kind of way(s) should be thought of for generating more employment in the city.
(a) More companies need to be brought under organised sector so that workers from unorganised sector may get jobs these with higher and more secure wages.
(b) The Government must provide loans and aid to companies transferring from unorganised to organised sectors.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

42. Which one of the following goals is an aspiration for urban unemployed youth?     
(a) More opportunity for higher education
(b) A permanent white collar job.
(c) Having a self owned home to live in.
(d) All of these

43. Every year government can give additional employment to more than 35 lakh people.       
Recognising this, the Government of India passed on Act in 2005. Which of the following options is that Act?
(a) Right to Work act
(b) MGNREGA
(c) PMRY Act
(d) Central Employment Act

44. As per the workers in different sectors (in millions) the data shown only for organised sector is       
 Primary Sector — 0.12% (approx)
 Secondary Sector — 50%
 Tertiary Sector — 48.8% (approx)
Out of the three sectors, why did employment in the secondary sector increase?
(a) An increase in machinary on farms.
(b) People tend to migrate to urban areas to get jobs in factories.
(c) Most people are engaged in agricultural activities.
(d) All of the above are correct reasons.

45. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.       
Assertion (A): Non-renewable resources are abundant in nature.
Reason (R): Non-renewable resources cannot be replenished over a period of time.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

46. Kamal works in the sector that includes a large number of people who are employed on their own doing small jobs. The given statement is talking about which of the following options?       
(a) Unorganised Sector
(b) Private Sector
(c) Service Sector
(d) Organised Sector.

SECTION-C
(This section consists of two cases. There are total of 12 questions in this section. Attempt any 10 questions from this section)

Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option:
Like Germany, Italy too had a long history of political fragmentation. Italians were scattered over several dynastic states as well as the multi-national Habsburg Empire. During the middle of the nineteenth century, Italy was divided into seven states, of which only one, Sardinia-Piedmont, was ruled by an Italian princely house. The north was under Austrian Habsburgs, the centre was ruled by the Pope and the southern regions were under the domination of the Bourbon kings of Spain. Even the Italian language had not acquired one common form and still had many regional and local variations. During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent programme for a unitary Italian Republic. He had also formed a secret society called Young Italy for the dissemination of his goals. The failure of revolutionary uprisings both in 1831 and 1848 meant that the mantle now fell on Sardinia-Piedmont under its ruler King Victor Emmanuel II to unify the Italian states through war. In the eyes of the ruling elites of this region, a unified Italy offered them the possibility of economic development and political dominance.

47. Who among the following did not play any role in the process of unification of Italy     
(a) Napoleon
(b) Cavour
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini
(d) Garibaldi

48. Who among the following led the process of the unification of Italy?   
(a) Venetia
(b) Papal State
(c) Sardinia-Piedmont
(d) None of these

49. Fill in the blank from the given option.     
During the middle of the 19th century, Italy was divided into __________ states.
(a) Six
(b) Five
(c) Eight
(d) Seven

50. Who formed ‘Young Italy’, a secret society?     
(a) Emmanuel II
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Count Camillo de Cavour
(d) None of these

51. What do you know about Giuseppe Mazzini?     
(a) He was a Russian revolutionary.
(b) He was a French revolutionary.
(c) He was an Italian revolutionary.
(d) He was a Prussian revolutionary.

52. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.       
Assertion (A): Sardinia-Piedmont was ruled by an Italian princely house.
Reason (R): The centre was ruled by the Bourbon kings of Spain while the north was under the Pope.
Options:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

Read the source given below and answer the questions by choosing the most appropriate option:
Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources. It has importance in a country like India, which has enormous diversity in the availability of resources. There are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources. There are some regions which can be considered self sufficient in terms of the availability of resources and there are some regions which have acute shortage of some vital resources. For example, the states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits. Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development. The state of Rajasthan is very well endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources. The cold desert of Ladakh is relatively isolated from the rest of the country. It has very rich cultural heritage but it is deficient in water, infrastructure and some vital minerals. This calls for balanced resource planning at the national, state, regional and local levels. Resource planning is a complex process which involves: (i) identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources (ii) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans. (iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.

53. Which of the following is not essential for a developed region?     
(a) Availability of resources
(b) Valuation of resources
(c) Utilisation of resources
(d) Valuation of planning

54. Read the following statements and find the INCORRECT from the given options:     
I. Rajasthan has abundance of with solar and wind energy.
II. Jharkhand, West Bengal and Tripura and rich in minerals and coal deposits.
III. Arunachal Pradesh is also rich in infrastructural development.
(a) II and III
(b) I and II
(c) I Only
(d) III Only

55. The state of Rajasthan lacks in       
(a) Water resources
(b) Soil resources
(c) Biotic resources
(d) Potential resources

56. Which of the following processes is involved in Resource Planning?       
(a) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country.
(b) Evolving a planning structure with suitable technology
(c) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans
(d) All of the above

57. Which of the following union territories is isolated from other parts of India despite of its very rich cultural heritage?     
(a) Goa
(b) Chandigarh
(c) Ladakh
(d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

58. Which two famous coal deposits are located in Jharkhand?     
(a) Bokaro and Jharia
(b) Raniganj and Bokaro
(c) Singrauli and Korba
(d) Jharia and Singrauali

SECTION-D
(Attempt both the Map Based Questions)

On the given outline map of India, identify the locations with the help of specified information. 

59. On the political map of India. ‘A’ is marked as a union territory of Jammu and Kashmir where a kind of soil is found. Identify it from the following options.       
(a) Black soil
(b) Arid soil
(c) Forest and mountainous soil
(d) Alluvial soil

60. On the same map, ‘B’ is marked as a major rice producing state. Identify it from the following options.   
(a) Rajasthan
(b) West Bengal
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttar Pradesh