Class 12 political science Sample Paper Term 1 With Solutions Set A

Important Questions Class 12

Please refer to Class 12 political science Sample Paper Term 1 With Solutions Set A provided below. The Sample Papers for Class 12 political science have been prepared based on the latest pattern issued by CBSE. Students should practice these guess papers for class 12 political science to gain more practice and get better marks in examinations. The Term 1 Sample Papers for political science Standard 12 will help you to understand the type of questions which can be asked in upcoming examinations.

Term 1 Sample Paper for Class 12 political science With Solutions Set A

Section – A

1. The Bipolarity was challenged by …… which provided the newly decolonised countries of Asia, Africa and latin America a third option of not to join the either  alliance.
(a) Socialist bloc
(b) NATO
(c) NAM
(d) Political bloc   

Answer

C

2. Which among the following statements does not reflect the objectives of NAM?
(a) Enabling newly decolonised countries to pursue independent policies.
(b) No to joining any military alliances.
(c) Following a policy of ‘neutrality’ on global issues.
(d) Focus on elimination of global economic inequalities.   

Answer

D

3. Why Gulf War was known as ‘Video Game War’?
(a) Use of Nuclear Bombs
(b) Use of Smart Bombs
(c) Use of Hydrogen Bombs
(d) All of these   

Answer

B

4. How the smaller states in the alliances used the link of the superpowers for their own purpose?
(a) Financial aid against their local regional rivals was granted.
(b) Protection of their interests and weapons were given to them.
(c) Unlimited powers were allotted to them.
(d) Both (a) and (b)     

Answer

D

5. For how many years did the Civil War continue in Tajikistan?
(a) 15 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 12 years
(d) 10 years   

Answer

D

6. The disintegration of the Soviet Union was one of the most important events that altered the global geopolitics after the Second World War. Consider the following
statement(s) in this regard and choose the correct one/(s).
(i) A coup took place in 1991 that was encouraged by Communist Party hardliners.
(ii) Boris Yeltsin emerged as a national hero in opposing this coup.
(iii) In December 1991, under the leadership of Yeltsin, Russia, Ukraine and Belarus, three major republics of the USSR, declared that the Soviet Union was disbanded.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) Only (i)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)     

Answer

D

7. The Geneva Accord was signed in which year?
(a) 1954
(b) 1956
(c) 1951
(d) 1950 

Answer

A

8. Find the correct sequence of the following events.
(i) US invasion of Iraq under Operation Iraqi Freedom.
(ii) Bombing of the US embassies in Nairobi, Kenya and Tanzania.
(iii) Attack on North and South towers of the World Trade Organisation.
(iv) Iraq’s invasion on Kuwait.
Codes
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (iv), (ii), (i) and (iii)
(c) (iii), (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iv), (iii), (ii) and (i)   

Answer

C

9. Israel attacked Lebanon saying it was necessary to control the militant group called as ……
(a) Hizb-ul-Mujahideen
(b) Al Qaeda
(c) Hezbollah
(d) Lashkar-e-Omar   

Answer

C

10. UNICEF was founded on ……………… .
(a) 11th May, 1946
(b) 11th December, 1946
(c) 11th April, 1947
(d) 11th June, 1947   

Answer

B

11. Which of the following countries is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council?
(a) China
(b) France
(c) Vietnam
(d) USA     

Answer

C

12. The United Nations was set up through the signing of the United Nations Charter by ………… states on ………… .
(a) 51, 24th October, 1945
(b) 55, 24th October, 1946
(c) 59, 24th October, 1943
(d) 65, 24th October, 1946   

Answer

A

13. Who is regarded as ‘the Iron man of India’?
(a) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Sardar Patel
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Dr. BR Ambedkar   

Answer

B

14. During the Cold War era, India and ………… entered into agreement allowing India to jointly produce military equipment.
(a) US
(b) Soviet Union
(c) Germany
(d) China   

Answer

B

15. Consider the following statement(s) is /are correct about the accession of Hyderabad.
(i) Nizam of Hyderabad signed the Instrument of Accession with India on the assurance of internal autonomy.
(ii) Nizam wanted an independent status for Hyderabad.
(iii) He signed a Standstill Agreement in November with India.
(iv) The peasantry, women and people of Hyderabad rose against the oppressive rule of the Nizam.
(a) Only (i)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) Only (iv)   

Answer

C

16. It is said that the nation is to a large extent an ‘imagined community’ held together by common belief, history, political aspiration and imaginations. Identify the features that make India a nation from the following options.
(a) India as a nation is held together with same political aspirations which ensures democratic set-up based on Parlimentary form of government.
(b) Indian society is based on welfare state i.e. on the principle of equality, freedom, protection to religious and disadvantaged groups.
(c) India is a land of immense diversities. It is multi-lingual, multi-religious, multi-cultural.
(d) All of the above     

Answer

D

17. Which of the following ideas did not form part of the early phase of India’s development policy?
(a) Planning
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Co-operative Farming
(d) Self-sufficiency   

Answer

B

18. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to National Development Council?
(a) The National Development Council was set up on 6th August, 1952.
(b) It is a apex body for decision making.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)   

Answer

C

19. The ………… Model is the model of decentralised planning. In this model there has been a focus on education, health, land reform, effective food distribution and poverty alleviation.
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Punjab
(d) Kerala   

Answer

D

20. In which one of the following Five Year Plans, fourteen major Indian banks were nationalised by the Government of India?
(a) 4th
(b) 5th
(c) 6th
(d) 7th   

Answer

A

21. Which of the following statement regarding First Five Year Plan in incorrect?
(a) The First Five Year Plan started all round balanced development which would ensure increase in national income.
(b) The First Five Year Plan allocated only 11.8% on agriculture and 10% on irrigation and food control.
(c) The First Five Year Plan totally focussed on agriculture.
(d) None of the above   

Answer

B

22. What was India’s role during the Bangladesh war, 1971?
(i) It provided shelter to about 80 lakh Bengali refugees.
(ii) Gave moral and material support to the freedom movement in Bangladesh.
(iii) India’s foreign policy reflected her desire to be an important regional power.
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (iii)
(d) (i) and (ii)     

Answer

D

23. Why did the Indian Government grow uneasy over the Tibet Issue?
(a) As Tibetan culture was suppressed by China.
(b) Due to migration from Tibet to India.
(c) As India was unable to help Tibet.
(d) All of the above   

Answer

A

24. Who among the following leaders from the early years of independent India favoured a ‘pro-US foreign policy’?
(a) Pt Jawahar Lal Nehru
(b) Sardar Patel
(c) Dr. BR Ambedkar
(d) None of these   

Answer

C

Section – B

25. India’s policy of Non-Alignment has been criticised for being ‘inconsistent’ and ‘unprincipled’ owing to which of the following factor/s?
(a) It was in principle mainly pursuing the national interest of India as it often refused to take a firm stand on crucial international issues.
(b) It is suggested that India was inconsistent and took contradictory postures, as India signed the Treaty of Friendship in 1971 with the USSR for 20 years, having criticised others for joining the alliances.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above   

Answer

C

26. In the given question, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A) Despite being an intense type of rivalry between great powers, the Cold War remained a ‘cold’ rather than a ‘hot’ or shooting war.
Reason (R)War is prevented by the deterrence relationship, but not by the rivalry between powers.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.     

Answer

A

27. Consider the following statements about second Five Year Plan and select the correct statement.
(i) During Second Five Year Plan government imposed substantial tariffs on imports.
(ii) It was done to protect the domestic industries.
(iii) It helped only public industries.
(iv) Savings and investments decreased during this period.
Codes
(a) Both (i) and (ii)
(b) Both (iii) and (iv)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii)
(d) Both (ii) and (iv)     

Answer

A

28. Two superpowers were keen on expanding their spheres of influence because ……………… .
(i) It was a struggle for power in the world.
(ii) It was a struggle to represent a dominant ideology.
(iii) Both the superpowers wanted to control the world in economic, political and social fields.
Select the correct answer.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) Only (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iii)   

Answer

C

29. Which one of the following is ‘true’ about the constraints on American hegemony?
(a) The increasing power of Russia.
(b) The widespread terrorism in the world.
(c) The institutional structure of the American state itself.
(d) The rise of India as a new economic power.     

Answer

C

30. In the given question, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A) US may actually have made a profit from the Gulf war.
Reason (R) US received more money from countries like Germany, Japan and Saudi Arabia.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.   

Answer

A

31. Which among the following is the largest trade partner of India in South Asia?
(a) Bhutan
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Sri Lanka   

Answer

C

32. Consider the following statements in reference to ‘Shock Therapy’
(i) It was the model economic transition in Russia, Central Asia and East Europe that was influenced by the World Bank and the IMF.
(ii) It ruled out any alternate or ‘third way’, other than state-controlled socialism or capitalism.
(iii) It led to the virtual disappearance of entire industries called ‘the largest garage sale in history’.
(iv) Dramatic rise in the value of Ruble, the Russian currency.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(d) All of these 

Answer

C

33. Why International Organisation is not considered a Super-state?
(a) Because it is created by the states.
(b) Because it comes into being when states agree to its creation.
(c) Because it discourages the liberty of states.
(d) All of the above   

Answer

B

34. Which of the following are the limitations of the United Nations that make it an imperfect body?
(i) The US stands as the only superpower after the disintegration of the USSR and the UN cannot check the US powers.
(ii) The single largest contributor to the UN is the US which increases the influence of the US over the UN.
(iii) The UN provides an arena in which it is possible to modify US attitudes and policies.
Codes
(a) Both (i) and (ii)
(b) Both (ii) and (iii)
(c) Both (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)     

Answer

A

35. Why are only some states part of permanent membership in the UN Security Council?
(a) Because these states were independent at the time of the Second World War.
(b) Because they were the most powerful countries immediately after the Second World War and they also emerged victorious.
(c) Because these countries were colonial powers.
(d) None of the above   

Answer

B

36. Which place in Himachal Pradesh is perhaps the largest refugee settlement of Tibetans in India?
(a) Manali
(b) Shimla
(c) Dalhousie
(d) Dharmashala   

Answer

D

37. How did the over emphasis on public sector adversely affect the Indian economy?
(a) The public sector exercised much power than private sector.
(b) Provided industrial infrastructure
(c) Made crucial interventions in agriculture
(d) All of the above    

Answer

D

38. What among the following statements marks a clear differentiation between the Capitalist and the Socialist models of development?
(a) The Capitalist economic model allows free market conditions to drive innovation and wealth creation while the Socialist based economy incorporates elements of centralised economic planning.
(b) Example of this model of capitalist development is the USSR while an example of socialistic model of development is the USA.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.   

Answer

A

39. In the given question, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A) The Government of India did not oppose the chinese openely, but as more information came in about the suppression of Tibetan culture, the Indian Government grew uneasy.
Reason (R) China annexed Tibet in 1950 and thus removed a historical buffer between the two countries.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.     

Answer

A

40. Consider the following statements about NITI Aayog find the wrong statement.
(a) NITI Aayog acts as a think tank of the Union Government.
(b) It was formed on 1st December, 2015.
(c) One District, one Product Policy is the recent agenda of NITI aayog.
(d) Prime Minister of India is the Chairperson.   

Answer

B

41. In the given question, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (A) Accession of the Princely States of Junagadh, Hyderabad, Kashmir and Manipur proved more difficult than the rest.
Reason (R) These states wanted to stay independent from the dominance of either Britain or Pakistan or India.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.   

Answer

A

42. What among the following posed practical problems in devising out a scheme of partition of India in 1947?
(a) No single territory of Muslim majority.
(b) Not all Muslim majority areas wanted to join Pakistan.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above 

Answer

C

43. Which of the following statements are incorrect?
(a)Myanmar is not duty free tariff preference scheme for LeastDeveloped Countries (LDC’s).
(b) Indo-Myanmar border is porous.
(c) India is also providing assistance in setting up institutions for higher learning and research.
(d) None of the above   

Answer

A

44. Consider the following statements about P. Sriramalu and identify the correct one.
(i) He was a Gandhian worker who participated in the Non-Cooperation Movement.
(ii) He also participated in individual Satyagraha and went on a fast in 1946 demanding that temples in Madras province be opened to dalits.
(iii) He undertook a fast unto death from 19th October, 1952 demanding separate state of Andhra Pradesh and died during that fast on 15th December, 1952.
(iv) Formation of the state of Andhra Pradesh in December 1952 as the first state on linguistic basis was followed by his death.
Codes
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(d) All of these   

Answer

B

45. During the Cold War era, both India-Russia entered into various agreements allowing India to jointly produce military equipment. Both the nations share a vision of a multipolar world order. Which one of the following cannot be counted as a connotation to ‘multipolar world’?
(a) Greater regionalism
(b) Collective security
(c) An independent foreign policy for all countries
(d) None of the above   

Answer

D

46. Trade and cooperation between India-Israel nowadays centres primarily on security-related deals and aid in areas such as …………… .
(a) agriculture
(b) water desalination.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these   

Answer

C

47. In the given question, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct code.
Assertion (a) The country’s first general election produced a split verdict -Zulfikar Ali Bhutto’s party emerged a winner in East Pakistan, while the Awami League led by Sheikh Mujib-ur Rahman swept through West Pakistan.
Reason (R) The Bengali population of East Pakistan had voted to protest against years of being treated as second class citizens by the rulers based in West Pakistan.
Codes
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) A is false, but R is true.   

Answer

D

48. “Set in the backdrop of the China war of 1962, this film portrays the soldier and his travails as its central theme. It pays tribute to the soldiers while depicting their plight, and the political frustration over the betrayal by the Chinese. The film uses documentary footage of war scenes and is considered as one of the early war films made in Hindi.”
The above excerpt refers to which one of these films?
(a) Haqeeqat
(b) Border
(c) Prahaar
(d) Lalkar   

Answer

A

Section – C

49. Study the picture given below and answer the question that follows:

Class 12 political science Sample Paper Term 1 With Solutions Set A

Which of the following conflicts is associated with the given image?
(a) Israel Palestine Conflict
(b) Israel Lebanon Conflict
(c) US intervention in West Asia
(d) None of these   

Answer

B

50. Study the following given picture and answer the following question:

Class 12 political science Sample Paper Term 1 With Solutions Set A

The person(second from left) standing with Sardar Patel was the head of which of the following princely states?
(a) Kashmir
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Bhopal
(d) Junagadh   

Answer

B

51. Study the following given picture and answer the following question.

Class 12 political science Sample Paper Term 1 With Solutions Set A

Which of the following events is depicted in the given image?
(a) Dalai Lama protesting against the Chinese Government over the Tibet issue.
(b) Dalai Lama on a visit to India.
(c) Chinese Premier Zhou Enlai visiting India.
(d) Dalai Lama entering India.   

Answer

D

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

The World Bank was created during the Second World War in 1944. Its activities are focused on developing countries. It works for human development (education, health), agriculture and rural development (irrigation, rural services), environmental protection (pollution reduction, establishing and enforcing regulations),infrastructure (roads, urban regeneration, electricity) and governance (anti-corruption, development of legal institutions). It provides loans and grants to the member-countries. In this way, it exercises enormous influence on the economic policies of developing countries. It is often criticised for setting the economic agenda of the poorer nations, attaching stringent conditions to its loans and forcing free market reforms.
The World Trade Organisation (WTO) is an international organisation which sets the rules for global trade. This organisation was set up in 1995 as the successor to the General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs (GATT) created after the Second World War. It has 164 members (as on 29th July, 2016). All decisions are taken unanimously but the major economic powers such as the US, EU and Japan have managed to use the WTO to frame rules of trade to advance their own interests. The developing countries often complain of non-transparent procedures and being pushed around by big powers.

52. The Headquarters of WTO are located in
(a) Bonn
(b) Washington
(c) Geneva
(d) None of these   

Answer

C

53. Main areas of functioning for the World Bank includes …………… .
(i) Human Development and Environment Protection
(ii) Infrastructure and Governance
(iii) Agricltural and Rural Development
Select the correct codes.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) Only (ii)
(d) All of these   

Answer

D

54. Which of the following are the functions of World Bank?
(a) World Bank often set the economic agenda of the poorer nations.
(b) It is responsible for attaching stringent conditions to its loans and forcing free market reforms.
(c) It provides loans and grants to member countries.
(d) All of the above     

Answer

D

55. When was the World Trade Organisation established?
(a) 1945
(b) 1955
(c) 1985
(d) 1995   

Answer

D

Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

We have a Muslim minority who are so large in numbers that they cannot, even if they want, go anywhere else. That is a basic fact about which there can be no argument. Whatever the provocation from Pakistan and whatever the indignities and horrors inflicted on non-Muslims there, we have got to deal with this minority in a civilised manner.We must give them security and the rights of citizens in a democratic state. If we fail to do so, we shall have a festering sore which will eventually poison the whole body politic and probably destroy it. -Jawaharlal Nehru, Letter to ChiefMinister, 15th October, 1947.

56. In spite of indignities and horrors inflicted on non-Muslims by Pakistan, Why Jawaharlal Nehru wanted to deal with the Muslim minority in a civilised way?
(a) Because Muslims were large in number.
(b) Because Muslims had no option to go anywhere even if they want to.
(c) Because Muslims were not represented as a minority section.
(d) Both (a) and (b)   

Answer

D

57. What kind of scenario will be envisaged if this minority is not provided security and rights?
(a) It will poison the whole Indian political system.
(b) The democratic set-up will come to an end.
(c) Instability will be there in the society.
(d) All of the above 

Answer

D

58. In the above passage, these lines are addressed by whom?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) BR Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel   

Answer

A

59. According to the given excerpt, if minorities are not given due respect and regards, what would be the most likely outcome or effect of this?
(a) They would flee away to secure places.
(b) It will poison the whole body politic and destroy it.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above   

Answer

B

60. A reference has been made in the given passage of non-muslim minorities of which of the following in order to propagte civilised handling of minority issues?
(a) India
(b) Kashmir
(c) Pakistan 
(d) Afghanistan   

Answer

C